Become CFA Institute Certified with updated CFA-Level-III exam questions and correct answers
Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?
Garrison Investments is a money management firm focusing on endowment management for small collegesand universities. Over the past 20 years, the firm has primarily invested in U.S. securities with small allocationsto high quality long-term foreign government bonds. Garrison's largest account, Point University, has a marketvalue of $800 million and an asset allocation as detailed in Figure 1.Figure 1: Point University Asset Allocation
*Bond coupon payments are all semiannual.
Managers at Garrison are concerned that expectations for a strengthening U.S. dollar relative to the British
pound could negatively impact returns to Point University's U.K. bond allocation. Therefore, managers have
collected information on swap and exchange rates. Currently, the swap rates in the United States and the
United Kingdom are 4.9% and 5.3%, respectively. The spot exchange rate is 0.45 GBP/USD. The U.K. bonds
are currently trading at face value.
Garrison recently convinced the board of trustees at Point University that the endowment should allocate a
portion of the portfolio into international equities, specifically European equities. The board has agreed to the
plan but wants the allocation to international equities to be a short-term tactical move. Managers at Garrison
have put together the following proposal for the reallocation:
To minimize trading costs while gaining exposure to international equities, the portfolio can use futures
contracts on the domestic 12-month mid-cap equity index and on the 12-month European equity index. This
strategy will temporarily exchange $80 million of U.S. mid-cap exposure for European equity index exposure.
Relevant data on the futures contracts are provided in Figure 2.
Figure 2: Mid-cap index and European Index Futures Data
Three months after proposing the international diversification plan, Garrison was able to persuade PointUniversity to make a direct short-term investment of $2 million in Haikuza Incorporated (HI), a Japaneseelectronics firm. HI exports its products primarily to the United States and Europe, selling only 30% of itsproduction in Japan. In order to control the costs of its production inputs, HI uses currency futures to mitigateexchange rate fluctuations associated with contractual gold purchases from Australia. In its current contract, HIhas one remaining purchase of Australian gold that will occur in nine months. The company has hedged thepurchase with a long 12-month futures contract on the Australian dollar (AUD).Managers at Garrison are expecting to sell the HI position in one year, but have become nervous about theimpact of an expected depreciation in the value of the Yen relative to the U.S. dollar. Thus, they have decidedto use a currency futures hedge. Analysts at Garrison have estimated that the covariance between the localcurrency returns on HI and changes in the USD/Yen spot rate is -0.184 and that the variance of changes in theUSD/Yen spot rate is 0.92.Which of the following best describes the minimum variance hedge ratio for Garrison's currency futures hedgeon the Haikuza investment?
Sue Gano and Tony Cismesia are performance analysts for the Barth Group. Barth provides consulting andcompliance verification for investment firms wishing to adhere to the Global Investment Performance Standards(GIPS ®). The firm also provides global performance evaluation and attribution services for portfolio managers.Barth recommends the use of GIPS to its clients due to its prominence as the standard for investmentperformance presentation.One of the Barth Group's clients, Nigel Investment Advisors, has a composite that specializes in exploiting theresults of academic research. This Contrarian composite goes long "loser" stocks and short "winner" stocks.The "loser' stocks are those that have experienced severe price declines over the past three years, while the"winner" stocks are those that have had a tremendous surge in price over the past three years. The Contrariancomposite has a mixed record of success and is rather small. It contains only four portfolios. Gano andCismesia debate the requirements for the Contrarian composite under the Global Investment PerformanceStandards.The Global Equity Growth composite of Nigel Investment Advisors invests in growth stocks internationally, andis tilted when appropriate to small cap stocks. One of Nigel's clients in the Global Equity Growth composite isCypress University. The university has recently decided that it would like to implement ethical investing criteriain its endowment holdings. Specifically, Cypress does not want to hold the stocks from any countries that aredeemed as human rights violators. Cypress has notified Nigel of the change, but Nigel does not hold any stocksin these countries. Gano is concerned that this restriction may limit investment manager freedom going forward.Gano and Cismesia are discussing the valuation and return calculation principles for both portfolios andcomposites, which they believe have changed over time. In order to standardize the manner in whichinvestment firms calculate and present performance to clients, Gano states that GIPS require the following:Statement 1: The valuation of portfolios must be based on market values and not book values or cost. Portfoliovaluations must be quarterly for all periods prior to January 1, 2001. Monthly portfolio valuations and returns arerequired for periods between January 1, 2001 and January 1, 2010.Statement 2: Composites are groups of portfolios that represent a specific investment strategy or objective. Adefinition of them must be made available upon request. Because composites are based on portfolio valuation,the monthly requirement for return calculation also applies to composites for periods between January 1, 2001and January 1, 2010.The manager of the Global Equity Growth composite has a benchmark that is fully hedged against currencyrisk. Because the manager is confident in his forecasting of currency values, the manager does not hedge tothe extent that the benchmark does. In addition to the Global Equity Growth composite, Nigel InvestmentAdvisors has a second investment manager that specializes in global equity. The funds under her managementconstitute the Emerging Markets Equity composite. The benchmark for the Emerging Markets Equity compositeis not hedged against currency risk. The manager of the Emerging Markets Equity composite does not hedgedue to the difficulty in finding currency hedges for thinly traded emerging market currencies. The managerfocuses on security selection in these markets and does not try to time the country markets differently from thebenchmark.The manager of the Emerging Markets Equity composite would like to add frontier markets such as Bulgaria,Kenya, Oman, and Vietnam to their composite, with a 20% weight- The manager is attracted to frontier marketsbecause, compared to emerging markets, frontier markets have much higher expected returns and lowercorrelations. Frontier markets, however, also have lower liquidity and higher risk. As a result, the managerproposes that the benchmark be changed from one reflecting only emerging markets to one that reflects bothemerging and frontier markets. The date of the change and the reason for the change will be provided in thefootnotes to the performance presentation. The manager reasons that by doing so, the potential investor canaccurately assess the relative performance of the composite over time.Cismesia would like to explore the performance of the Emerging Markets Equity composite over the past twoyears. To do so, he determines the excess return each period and then compounds the excess return over thetwo years to arrive at a total two-year excess return. For the attribution analysis, he calculates the securityselection effect, the market allocation effect, and the currency allocation effect each year. He then adds all theyearly security selection effects together to arrive at the total security selection effect. He repeats this processfor the market allocation effect and the currency allocation effect.What are the GIPS requirements for the Contrarian composite of Nigel Investment Advisors?
Eugene Price, CFA, a portfolio manager for the American Universal Fund (AUF), has been directed to pursue acontingent immunization strategy for a portfolio with a current market value of $100 million. AUF's trustees arenot willing to accept a rate of return less than 6% over the next five years. The trustees have also stated thatthey believe an immunization rate of 8% is attainable in today's market. Price has decided to implement thisstrategy by initially purchasing $100 million in 10-year bonds with an annual coupon rate of 8.0%, paidsemiannuallyPrice forecasts that the prevailing immunization rate and market rate for the bonds will both rise from 8% to 9%in one year.While Price is conducting his immunization strategy he is approached by April Banks, a newly hired junioranalyst at AUF. Banks is wondering what steps need to be taken to immunize a portfolio with multiple liabilities.Price states that the concept of single liability immunization can fortunately be extended to address the issue ofimmunizing a portfolio with multiple liabilities. He further states that there are two methods for managingmultiple liabilities. The first method is cash flow matching which involves finding a bond with a maturity dateequal to the liability payment date, buying enough in par value of that bond so that the principal and final couponfully fund the last liability, and continuing this process until all liabilities are matched. The second method ishorizon matching which ensures that the assets and liabilities have the same present values and durations.Price warns Banks about the dangers of immunization risk. He states that it is impossible to have a portfoliowith zero immunization risk, because reinvestment risk will always be present. Price tells Banks, "Be cognizantof the dispersion of cash flows when conducting an immunization strategy. When there is a high dispersion ofcash flows about the horizon date, immunization risk is high. It is better to have cash flows concentrated aroundthe investment horizon, since immunization risk is reduced."Regarding Price's statements on the two methods for managing multiple liabilities, determine whether hisdescriptions of cash flow matching and horizon matching are correct.
Smiler Industries is a U.S. manufacturer of machine tools and other capital goods. Dat Ng, the CFO of Smiler,feels strongly that Smiler has a competitive advantage in its risk management practices. With this in mind, Nghedges many of the risks associated with Smiler's financial transactions, which include those of a financialsubsidiary. Ng's knowledge of derivatives is extensive, and he often uses them for hedging and in managingSrniler's considerable investment portfolio.Smiler has recently completed a sale to Frexa in Italy, and the receivable is denominated in euros. Thereceivable is €10 million to be received in 90 days. Srniler's bank provides the following information:
Smiler borrows short-term funds to meet expenses on a temporary basis and typically makes semiannualinterest payments based on 180-day LIBOR plus a spread of 150 bp. Smiler will need to borrow S25 million in90 days to invest in new equipment. To hedge the interest rate risk on the loan, Ng is considering the purchaseof a call option on 180-day LIBOR with a term to expiration of 90 days, an exercise rate of 4.8%, and a premiumof 0.000943443 of the loan amount. Current 90-day LIBOR is 4.8%.Smiler also has a diversified portfolio of large cap stocks with a current value of $52,750,000, and Ng wants tolower the beta of the portfolio from its current level of 1.25 to 0.9 using S&P 500 futures which have a multiplierof 250. The S&P 500 is currently 1,050, and the futures contract exhibits a beta of 0.98 to the underlying.Because Ng intends to replace the short-term LIBOR-based loan with long-term financing, he wants to hedgethe risk of a 50 bp change in the market rate of the 20-year bond Smiler will issue in 270 days. The currentspread to Treasuries for Smiler's corporate debt is 2.4%. He will use a 270-day, 20-year Treasury bond futurescontract ($100,000 face value) currently priced at 108.5 for the hedge. The CTD bond for the contract has aconversion factor of 1.259 and a dollar duration of $6,932.53. The corporate bond, if issued today, would havean effective duration of 9.94 and has an expected effective duration at issuance of 9.90 based on a constantspread assumption. A regression of the YTM of 20-year corporate bonds with a rating the same as Smiler's onthe YTM of the CTD bond yields a beta of 1.05.If Ng purchases the interest rate call, and 180-day LIBOR at option expiration is 5.73%, the annualized effectiverate for the 180-day loan is closest to:
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