Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

William Bliss, CFA, runs a hedge fund that uses both managed futures strategies and positions in physicalcommodities. He is reviewing his operations and strategies to increase the return of the fund. Bliss has justhired Joseph Kanter, CFA, to help him manage the fund because he realizes that he needs to increase histrading activity in futures and to engage in futures strategies other than fully hedged, passively managedpositions. Bliss also hired Kanter because of Kantcr's experience with swaps, which Bliss hopes to add to hischoice of investment tools.Bliss explains to Kanter that his clients pay 2% on assets under management and a 20% incentive fee. Theincentive fee is based on profits after having subtracted the risk-free rate, which is the fund's basic hurdle rate,and there is a high water mark provision. Bliss is hoping that Kanter can help his business because his firm didnot earn an incentive fee this past year. This was the case despite the fact that, after two years of losses, thevalue of the fund increased 14% during the previous year. That increase occurred without any new capitalcontributed from clients. Bliss is optimistic about the near future because the term structure of futures prices isparticularly favorable for earning higher returns from long futures positions.Kanter says he has seen research that indicates inflation may increase in the next few years. He states thisshould increase the opportunity to earn a higher return in commodities and suggests taking a large, marginedposition in a broad commodity index. This would offer an enhanced return that would attract investors holdingonly stocks and bonds. Bliss mentions that not all commodity prices are positively correlated with inflation so itmay be better to choose particular types of commodities in which to invest. Furthermore, Bliss adds thatcommodities traditionally have not outperformed stocks and bonds either on a risk-adjusted or absolute basis.Kanter says he will research companies who do business in commodities, because buying the stock of thosecompanies to gain commodity exposure is an efficient and effective method for gaining indirect exposure tocommodities.Bliss agrees that his fund should increase its exposure to commodities and wants Kanter's help in using swapsto gain such exposure. Bliss asks Kanter to enter into a swap with a relatively short horizon to demonstrate howa commodity swap works. Bliss notes that the futures prices of oil for six months, one year, eighteen months,and two years are $55, S54, $52, and $5 1 per barrel, respectively, and the risk-free rate is less than 2%.Bliss asks how a seasonal component could be added to such a swap. Specifically, he asks if either thenotional principal or the swap price can be higher during the reset closest to the winter season and lower for thereset period closest to the summer season. This would allow the swap to more effectively hedge a commoditylike oil, which would have a higher demand in the winter than the summer. Kanter says that a swap can onlyhave seasonal swap prices, and the notional principal must stay constanl. Thus, the solution in such a casewould be to enter into two swaps, one that has an annual reset in the winter and one that has an annual reset inthe summer.Given the information, the most likely reason that Bliss's firm did not earn an incentive fee in the past year wasbecause:

Robert Keith, CFA, has begun a new job at CMT Investments as Head of Compliance. Keith has just completed a review of all of CMT's operations, and has interviewed all the firm's portfolio managers. Many are CFA charterholders, but some are not. Keith intends to use the CFA Institute Code and Standards, as well as the Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct, as ethical guidelines for CMT to follow. In the course of Keith's review of the firm's overall practices, he has noted a few situations which potentially need to be addressed. Situation 1: CMT Investments' policy regarding acceptance of gifts and entertainment is not entirely clear. There is general confusion within the firm regarding what is and is not acceptable practice regarding gifts, entertainment and additional compensation. Situation 2: Keith sees inconsistency regarding fee disclosures to clients. In some cases, information related to fees paid to investment managers for investment services provided are properly disclosed. However, a few of the periodic costs, which will affect investment return, are not disclosed to the clients. Most managers are providing clients with investment returns net of fees, but a few are just providing the gross returns. One of the managers stated "providing gross returns is acceptable, as long as I show the fees such that the client can make their own simple calculation of the returns net of fees." Situation 3: Keith has noticed a few gaps in CMT's procedure regarding use of soft dollars. There have been cases where "directed brokerage" has resulted in less than prompt execution of trades. He also found a few cases where a manager paid a higher commission than normal, in order to obtain goods or services. Keith is considering adding two statements to CMT's policy and procedures manual specifically addressing the primary issues he noted. Statement 1: "Commissions paid, and any corresponding benefits received, are the property of the client. The benefit(s) must directly benefit the client. If a manager's client directs the manager to purchase goods or services that do not provide research services that benefit the client, this violates the duty of loyalty to the client.” Statement 2: "In cases of "directed brokerage," if there is concern that the client is not receiving the best execution, it is acceptable to utilize a less than ideal broker, but it must be disclosed to the client that they may not be obtaining the best execution." Situation 4: Keith is still evaluating his data, but it appears that there may be situations where proxies were not voted. After completing his analysis of proxy voting procedures at CMT, Keith wants to insert the proper language into the procedures manual to address proxy voting. Situation 5: Keith is putting into place a "disaster recovery- plan," in order to ensure business continuity in the event of a localized disaster, and also to protect against any type of disruption in the financial markets. This plan includes the following provisions: • Procedures for communicating with clients, especially in the event of extended disruption of services provided. • Alternate arrangement for monitoring and analyzing investments in the event that primary systems become unavailable. • Plans for internal communication and coverage of crucial business functions in the event of disruption at the primary place of business, or a communications breakdown. Keith is considering adding the following provisions to the disaster recovery plan in order to properly comply with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct: Provision 1: "A provision needs to be added incorporating off-site backup for all pertinent account information." Provision 2: "A provision mandating testing of the plan on a company-wide basis, at periodical intervals, should be added." Situation 6: Keith is spending an incredible amount of time on detailed procedures and company policies that are in compliance with the CFA Institute Code and Standards, and also in compliance with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct. As part of this process, he has had several meetings with CMT senior management, and is second-guessing the process. One of the senior managers is indicating that it might be abetter idea to just formally adopt both the Code and Standards and the Asset Manager Code of Conduct, which would make a detailed policy and procedure manual redundant. Keith wants to assure CMT's compliance with the requirements of the CFA Institute Code and Standards of Professional Conduct. Which of the following statements most accurately describes CMT's responsibilities in order to assure compliance?

Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues. Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis. Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity. Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100." Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around." The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year. Of the following VAR calculation methods, the measure that would most likely suit Smitherspoon is the:

Milson Investment Advisors (MIA) specializes in managing fixed income portfolios for institutional clients. Manyof MIA's clients are able to take on substantial portfolio risk and therefore the firm's funds invest in all creditqualities and in international markets. Among its investments, MIA currently holds positions in the debt of Worthinc., Enertech Company, and SBK Company.Worth Inc. is a heavy equipment manufacturer in Germany. The company finances a significant amount of itsfixed assets using bonds. Worth's current debt outstanding is in the form of non-callable bonds issued twoyears ago at a coupon rate of 7.2% and a maturity of 15 years. Worth expects German interest rates to declineby as much as 200 basis points (bps) over the next year and would like to take advantage of the decline. Thecompany has decided to enter into a 2-year interest rate swap with semiannual payments, a swap rate of 5.8%,and a floating rate based on 6-month EURIBOR. The duration of the fixed side of the swap is 1.2. Analysts atMIA have made the following comments regarding Worth's swap plan:• "The duration of the swap from the perspective of Worth is 0.95."• "By entering into the swap, the duration of Worth's long-term liabilities will become smaller, causing the valueof the firm's equity to become more sensitive to changes in interest rates."Enertech Company is a U.S.-based provider of electricity and natural gas. The company uses a large proportionof floating rate notes to finance its operations. The current interest rate on Enertech's floating rate notes, basedon 6-month LIBOR plus 150bp, is 5.5%. To hedge its interest rate risk, Enertech has decided to enter into along interest rate collar. The cap and the floor of the collar have maturities of two years, with settlement dates(in arrears) every six months. The strike rate for the cap is 5.5% and for the floor is 4.5%, based on 6-monthLIBOR, which is forecast to be 5.2%, 6.1%, 4.1%, and 3.8%, in 6,12, 18, and 24 months, respectively. Eachsettlement period consists of 180 days. Analysts at MIA are interested in assessing the attributes of the collar.SBK Company builds oil tankers and other large ships in Norway. The firm has several long-term bond issuesoutstanding with fixed interest rates ranging from 5.0% to 7.5% and maturities ranging from 5 to 12 years.Several years ago, SBK took the pay floating side of a semi-annual settlement swap with a rate of 6.0%, afloating rate based on LIBOR, and a tenor of eight years. The firm now believes interest rates may increase in 6months, but is not 100% confident in this assumption. To hedge the risk of an interest rate increase, given itsinterest rate uncertainty, the firm has sold a payer interest rate swaption with a maturity of 6 months, anunderlying swap rate of 6.0%, and a floating rate based on LIBOR.MIA is considering investing in the debt of Rio Corp, a Brazilian energy company. The investment would be inRio's floating rate notes, currently paying a coupon of 8.0%. MIA's economists are forecasting an interest ratedecline in Brazil over the short term.Determine whether the MIA analysts' comments regarding the duration of the Worth Inc. swap and the effectsof the swap on the company's balance sheet are correct or incorrect.

Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?