Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Paul Dennon is senior manager at Apple Markets Associates, an investment advisory firm. Dennon has beenexamining portfolio risk using traditional methods such as the portfolio variance and beta. He has rankedportfolios from least risky to most risky using traditional methods.Recently, Dennon has become more interested in employing value at risk (VAR) to determine the amount ofmoney clients could potentially lose under various scenarios. To examine VAR, Paul selects a fund run solelyfor Apple's largest client, the Jude Fund. The client has $100 million invested in the portfolio. Using thevariance-covariance method, the mean return on the portfolio is expected to be 10% and the standard deviationis expected to be 10%. Over the past 100 days, daily losses to the Jude Fund on its 10 worst days were (inmillions): 20, 18, 16, 15, 12, 11, 10, 9, 6, and 5. Dennon also ran a Monte Carlo simulation (over 10,000scenarios). The following table provides the results of the simulation:Figure 1: Monte Carlo Simulation DataThe top row (Percentile) of the table reports the percentage of simulations that had returns below thosereported in the second row (Return). For example, 95% of the simulations provided a return of 15% or less, and97.5% of the simulations provided a return of 20% or less.Dennon's supervisor, Peggy Lane, has become concerned that Dennon's use of VAR in his portfoliomanagement practice is inappropriate and has called for a meeting with him. Lane begins by asking Dennon tojustify his use of VAR methodology and explain why the estimated VAR varies depending on the method usedto calculate it. Dennon presents Lane with the following table detailing VAR estimates for another Apple client,the York Pension Plan.To round out the analytical process. Lane suggests that Dennon also incorporate a system for evaluatingportfolio performance. Dennon agrees to the suggestion and computes several performance ratios on the YorkPension Plan portfolio to discuss with Lane. The performance figures are included in the following table. Notethat the minimum acceptable return is the risk-free rate.Figure 3: Performance Ratios for the York Pension PlanUsing the historical data over the past 100 days, the 1-day, 5% VAR for the Jude Fund is closest to:

Eugene Price, CFA, a portfolio manager for the American Universal Fund (AUF), has been directed to pursue acontingent immunization strategy for a portfolio with a current market value of $100 million. AUF's trustees arenot willing to accept a rate of return less than 6% over the next five years. The trustees have also stated thatthey believe an immunization rate of 8% is attainable in today's market. Price has decided to implement thisstrategy by initially purchasing $100 million in 10-year bonds with an annual coupon rate of 8.0%, paidsemiannuallyPrice forecasts that the prevailing immunization rate and market rate for the bonds will both rise from 8% to 9%in one year.While Price is conducting his immunization strategy he is approached by April Banks, a newly hired junioranalyst at AUF. Banks is wondering what steps need to be taken to immunize a portfolio with multiple liabilities.Price states that the concept of single liability immunization can fortunately be extended to address the issue ofimmunizing a portfolio with multiple liabilities. He further states that there are two methods for managingmultiple liabilities. The first method is cash flow matching which involves finding a bond with a maturity dateequal to the liability payment date, buying enough in par value of that bond so that the principal and final couponfully fund the last liability, and continuing this process until all liabilities are matched. The second method ishorizon matching which ensures that the assets and liabilities have the same present values and durations.Price warns Banks about the dangers of immunization risk. He states that it is impossible to have a portfoliowith zero immunization risk, because reinvestment risk will always be present. Price tells Banks, "Be cognizantof the dispersion of cash flows when conducting an immunization strategy. When there is a high dispersion ofcash flows about the horizon date, immunization risk is high. It is better to have cash flows concentrated aroundthe investment horizon, since immunization risk is reduced."Regarding Price's statements on the two methods for managing multiple liabilities, determine whether hisdescriptions of cash flow matching and horizon matching are correct.

Dakota Watson and Anthony Smith are bond portfolio managers for Northern Capital Investment Advisors,which is based in the U.S. Northern Capital has $2,000 million under management, with S950 million of that inthe bond market. Northern Capital's clients are primarily institutional investors such as insurance companies,foundations, and endowments. Because most clients insist on a margin over the relevant bond benchmark,Watson and Smith actively manage their bond portfolios, while at the same time trying to minimize trackingerror.One of the funds that Northern Capital offers invests in emerging market bonds. An excerpt from its prospectusreveals the following fund objectives and strategies:“The fund generates a return by constructing a portfolio using all major fixed-income sectors within the Asianregion (except Japan) with a bias towards non-government bonds. The fund makes opportunistic investmentsin both investment grade and high yield bonds. Northern Capital analysts seek those bond issues that areexpected to outperform U.S. bonds with similar credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk-Value is added byfinding those bonds that have been overlooked by other developed world bond funds. The fund favors nondollar, local currency denominated securities to avoid the default risk associated with a lack of hard currency onthe part of issuer."Although Northern Capital does examine the availability of excess returns in foreign markets by investingoutside the index in these markets, most of its strategies focus on U.S. bonds and spread analysis of them.Discussing the analysis of spreads in the U.S. bond market, Watson comments on the usefulness of the optionadjusted spread and the swap spread and makes the following statements:Statement 1: Due to changes in the structure of the primary bond market in the U.S., the option adjustedspread is increasingly valuable for analyzing the attractiveness of bond investments.Statement 2: The advantage of the swap spread framework is that investors can compare the relativeattractiveness of fixed-rate and floating-rate bond markets.Watson's view of the U.S. economy is decidedly bearish. She is concerned that the recent withdrawal of liquidityfrom the U.S. financial system will result in a U.S. recession, possibly even a depression. She forecasts thatinterest rates in the U.S. will continue to fall as the demand for loanable funds declines with the lack of businessinvestment. Meanwhile, she believes that the Federal Reserve will continue to keep short-term rates low inorder to stimulate the economy. Although she sees the level of yields declining, she believes that the spread onrisky securities will increase due to the decline in business prospects. She therefore has reallocated her bondportfolio away from high-yield bonds and towards investment grade bonds.Smith is less decided about the economy. However, his trading strategy has been quite successful in the past.As an example of his strategy, he recently sold a 20-year AA-rated $50,000 Mahan Corporation bond with a7.75% coupon that he had purchased at par. With the proceeds, he then bought a newly issued A-rated QuincyCorporation bond that offered an 8.25% coupon. By swapping the first bond for the second bond, he enhancedhis annual income, which he considers quite favorable given the declining yields in the market.Watson has become quite interested in the mortgage market. With the anticipated decline in interest rates, sheexpects that the yields on mortgages will decline. As a result, she has reallocated the portion of NorthernCapital's bond portfolio dedicated to mortgages. She has shifted the holdings from 8.50% coupon mortgages to7.75% coupon mortgages, reasoning that if interest rates do drop, the lower coupon mortgages will rise in pricemore than the higher coupon mortgages. She identifies this trade as a structure trade.Smith is examining the liquidity of three bonds. Their characteristics are listed in the table below:Which of the following best describes the relative value analysis used in the Northern Capita! Emerging marketbond fund? It is a:

Jack Higgins, CFA, and Tim Tyler, CFA, are analysts for Integrated Analytics (LA), a U.S.-based investmentanalysis firm. JA provides bond analysis for both individual and institutional portfolio managers throughout theworld. The firm specializes in the valuation of international bonds, with consideration of currency risk. IAtypically uses forward contracts to hedge currency risk.Higgins and Tyler are considering the purchase of a bond issued by a Norwegian petroleum products firm,Bergen Petroleum. They have concerns, however, regarding the strength of the Norwegian krone currency(NKr) in the near term, and they want to investigate the potential return from hedged strategies. Higginssuggests that they consider forward contracts with the same maturity as the investment holding period, which isestimated at one year. He states that if IA expects the Norwegian NKr to depreciate and that the Swedish krona(Sk) to appreciate, then IA should enter into a hedge where they sell Norwegian NKr and buy Swedish Sk via aone-year forward contract. The Swedish Sk could then be converted to dollars at the spot rate in one year.Tyler states that if an investor cannot obtain a forward contract denominated in Norwegian NKr and if theNorwegian NKr and euro are positively correlated, then a forward contract should be entered into where euroswill be exchanged for dollars in one year. Tyler then provides Higgins the following data on risk-free rates andspot rates in Norway and the U.S., as well as the expected return on the Bergen Petroleum bond.Return on Bergen Petroleum bond in Norwegian NKr 7.00%Risk-free rate in Norway 4.80%Expected change in the NKr relative to the U.S. dollar -0.40%Risk-free rate in United States 2.50%Higgins and Tyler discuss the relationship between spot rates and forward rates and comment as follows.• Higgins: "The relationship between spot rates and forward rates is referred to as interest rate parity, wherehigher forward rates imply that a country's spot rate will increase in the future."• Tyler: "Interest rate parity depends on covered interest arbitrage which works as follows. Suppose the 1-yearU.K. interest rate is 5.5%, the 1-year Japanese interest rate is 2.3%, the Japanese yen is at a one-year forwardpremium of 4.1%, and transactions costs are minimal. In this case, the international trader should borrow yen.Invest in pound denominated bonds, and use a yen-pound forward contract to pay back the yen loan."The following day, Higgins and Tyler discuss various emerging market bond strategies and make the followingstatements.• Higgins: "Over time, the quality in emerging market sovereign bonds has declined, due in part to contagionand the competitive devaluations that often accompany crises in emerging markets. When one countrydevalues their currency, others often quickly follow and as a result the countries default on their external debt,which is usually denominated in a hard currency."• Tyler: "Investing outside the index can provide excess returns. Because the most common emerging marketbond index is concentrated in Latin America, the portfolio manager can earn an alpha by investing in emergingcountry bonds outside of this region."Turning their attention to specific issues of bonds, Higgins and Tyler examine the characteristics of two bonds:a six-year maturity bond issued by the Midlothian Corporation and a twelve-year maturity bond issued by theHorgen Corporation. The Midlothian bond is a U.S. issue and the Horgen bond was issued by a firm based inSwitzerland. The characteristics of each bond are shown in the table below. Higgins and Tyler discuss therelative attractiveness of each bond and, using a total return approach, which bond should be invested in,assuming a 1-year time horizon.Which of the following statements provides the best description of the advantage of using breakeven spread analysis? Breakeven spread analysis: 

Carl Cramer is a recent hire at Derivatives Specialists Inc. (DSI), a small consulting firm that advises a varietyof institutions on the management of credit risk. Some of DSI's clients are very familiar with risk managementtechniques whereas others are not. Cramer has been assigned the task of creating a handbook on credit risk,its possible impact, and its management. His immediate supervisor, Christine McNally, will assist Cramer in thecreation of the handbook and will review it. Before she took a position at DSI, McNally advised banks and otherinstitutions on the use of value-at-risk (VAR) as well as credit-at-risk (CAR).Cramer's first task is to address the basic dimensions of credit risk. He states that the first dimension of creditrisk is the probability of an event that will cause a loss. The second dimension of credit risk is the amount lost,which is a function of the dollar amount recovered when a loss event occurs. Cramer recalls the considerabledifficulty he faced when transacting with Johnson Associates, a firm which defaulted on a contract with theGrich Company. Grich forced Johnson Associates into bankruptcy and Johnson Associates was declared indefault of all its agreements. Unfortunately, DSI then had to wait until the bankruptcy court decided on all claimsbefore it could settle the agreement with Johnson Associates.McNally mentions that Cramer should include a statement about the time dimension of credit risk. She statesthat the two primary time dimensions of credit risk are current and future. Current credit risk relates to thepossibility of default on current obligations, while future credit risk relates to potential default on futureobligations. If a borrower defaults and claims bankruptcy, a creditor can file claims representing the face valueof current obligations and the present value of future obligations. Cramer adds that combining current andpotential credit risk analysis provides the firm's total credit risk exposure and that current credit risk is usually areliable predictor of a borrower's potential credit risk.As DSI has clients with a variety of forward contracts, Cramer then addresses the credit risks associated withforward agreements. Cramer states that long forward contracts gain in value when the market price of theunderlying increases above the contract price. McNally encourages Cramer to include an example of credit riskand forward contracts in the handbook. She offers the following:A forward contract sold by Palmer Securities has six months until the delivery date and a contract price of 50.The underlying asset has no cash flows or storage costs and is currently priced at 50. In the contract, no fundswere exchanged upfront.Cramer also describes how a client firm of DSI can control the credit risks in their derivatives transactions. Hewrites that firms can make use of netting arrangements, create a special purpose vehicle, require collateralfrom counterparties, and require a mark-to-market provision. McNally adds that Cramer should include adiscussion of some newer forms of credit protection in his handbook. McNally thinks credit derivativesrepresent an opportunity for DSL She believes that one type of credit derivative that should figure prominently intheir handbook is total return swaps. She asserts that to purchase protection through a total return swap, theholder of a credit asset will agree to pass the total return on the asset to the protection seller (e.g., a swapdealer) in exchange for a single, fixed payment representing the discounted present value of expected cashflows from the asset.A DSI client, Weaver Trading, has a bond that they are concerned will increase in credit risk. Weaver would likeprotection against this event in the form of a payment if the bond's yield spread increases beyond LIBOR plus3%. Weaver Trading prefers a cash settlement.Later that week, Cramer and McNally visit a client's headquarters and discuss the potential hedge of a bondissued by Cuellar Motors. Cuellar manufactures and markets specialty luxury motorcycles. The client isconsidering hedging the bond using a credit spread forward, because he is concerned that a downturn in theeconomy could result in a default on the Cuellar bond. The client holds $2,000,000 in par of the Cuellar bondand the bond's coupons are paid annually. The bond's current spread over the U.S. Treasury rate is 2.5%. Thecharacteristics of the forward contract are shown below.Information on the Credit Spread ForwardRegarding their statements concerning current and future credit risk, determine whether Cramer and McNallyare correct or incorrect.