Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Pace Insurance is a large, multi-line insurance company that also owns several proprietary mutual funds. Thefunds are managed individually, but Pace has an investment committee that oversees all of the funds. Thiscommittee is responsible for evaluating the performance of the funds relative to appropriate benchmarks andrelative to the stated investment objectives of each individual fund. During a recent investment committeemeeting, the poor performance of Pace's equity mutual funds was discussed. In particular, the inability of theportfolio managers to outperform their benchmarks was highlighted. The net conclusion of the committee wasto review the performance of the manager responsible for each fund and dismiss those managers whoseperformance had lagged substantially behind the appropriate benchmark.The fund with the worst relative performance is the Pace Mid-Cap Fund, which invests in stocks with acapitalization between S40 billion and $80 billion. A review of the operations of the fund found the following:• The turnover of the fund was almost double that of other similar style mutual funds.• The fund's portfolio manager solicited input from her entire staff prior to making any decision to sell an existingholding.• The beta of the Pace Mid-Cap Fund's portfolio was 60% higher than the beta of other similar style mutualfunds.• No stock is considered for purchase in the Mid-Cap Fund unless the portfolio manager has 15 years offinancial information on that company, plus independent research reports from at least three different analysts.• The portfolio manager refuses to increase her technology sector weighting because of past losses the fundincurred in the sector.• The portfolio manager sold all the fund's energy stocks as the price per barrel of oil rose above $80. Sheexpects oil prices to fall back to the $40 to S50 per barrel range.A committee member made the following two comments:Comment 1: "One reason for the poor recent performance of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund is that the portfoliolacks recognizable companies. I believe that good companies make good investments."Comment 2: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund refuses to acknowledge her mistakes. Sheseems to sell stocks that appreciate, but hold stocks that have declined in value."The supervisor of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund portfolio manager made the following statements:Statement 1: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund has engaged in quarter-end window dressingto make her portfolio look better to investors. The portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as overreaction."Statement 2: "Each time the portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual fund trades a stock, she executes thetrade by buying or selling one-third of the position at a time, with the trades spread over three months. Theportfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as anchoring."Indicate whether Statement 1 and Statement 2 made by the supervisor are correct.

Andre Hickock, CFA, is a newly hired fixed income portfolio manager for Deadwood Investments, LLC. Hickockis reviewing the portfolios of several pension clients that have been assigned to him to manage. The firstportfolio, Montana Hardware, Inc., has the characteristics shown in Figure 1.Hickock is attempting to assess the risk of the Montana Hardware portfolio. The benchmark bond index thatDeadwood uses for pension accounts similar to Montana Hardware has an effective duration of 5.25. Hissupervisor, Carla Mity, has discussed bond risk measurement with Hickock. Mity is most familiar with equity riskmeasures, and is not convinced of the validity of duration as a portfolio risk measure. Mity told Hickock, "I havealways believed that standard deviation is the best measure of bond portfolio risk. You want to know thevolatility, and standard deviation is the most direct measure of volatility."Hickock is also reviewing the bond portfolio of Buffalo Sports, Inc., which is comprised of the following assetsshown in Figure 2.The trustees of the Buffalo Sports pension plan have requested that Deadwood explore alternatives to reducethe risk of the MBS sector of their bond portfolio. Hickock responded to their request as follows:"I believe that the current option-adjusted spread (OAS) on the MBS sector is quite high. In order to reduce yourrisk, I would suggest that we hedge the interest rate risk using a combination of 2-year and 10-year Treasurysecurity futures. I would further suggest that we do not take any steps to hedge spread risk at this time."In assessing the risk of a portfolio containing both bullet maturity corporate bonds and MBS, Hickock shouldalways consider that:

Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?

William Bliss, CFA, runs a hedge fund that uses both managed futures strategies and positions in physicalcommodities. He is reviewing his operations and strategies to increase the return of the fund. Bliss has justhired Joseph Kanter, CFA, to help him manage the fund because he realizes that he needs to increase histrading activity in futures and to engage in futures strategies other than fully hedged, passively managedpositions. Bliss also hired Kanter because of Kantcr's experience with swaps, which Bliss hopes to add to hischoice of investment tools.Bliss explains to Kanter that his clients pay 2% on assets under management and a 20% incentive fee. Theincentive fee is based on profits after having subtracted the risk-free rate, which is the fund's basic hurdle rate,and there is a high water mark provision. Bliss is hoping that Kanter can help his business because his firm didnot earn an incentive fee this past year. This was the case despite the fact that, after two years of losses, thevalue of the fund increased 14% during the previous year. That increase occurred without any new capitalcontributed from clients. Bliss is optimistic about the near future because the term structure of futures prices isparticularly favorable for earning higher returns from long futures positions.Kanter says he has seen research that indicates inflation may increase in the next few years. He states thisshould increase the opportunity to earn a higher return in commodities and suggests taking a large, marginedposition in a broad commodity index. This would offer an enhanced return that would attract investors holdingonly stocks and bonds. Bliss mentions that not all commodity prices are positively correlated with inflation so itmay be better to choose particular types of commodities in which to invest. Furthermore, Bliss adds thatcommodities traditionally have not outperformed stocks and bonds either on a risk-adjusted or absolute basis.Kanter says he will research companies who do business in commodities, because buying the stock of thosecompanies to gain commodity exposure is an efficient and effective method for gaining indirect exposure tocommodities.Bliss agrees that his fund should increase its exposure to commodities and wants Kanter's help in using swapsto gain such exposure. Bliss asks Kanter to enter into a swap with a relatively short horizon to demonstrate howa commodity swap works. Bliss notes that the futures prices of oil for six months, one year, eighteen months,and two years are $55, S54, $52, and $5 1 per barrel, respectively, and the risk-free rate is less than 2%.Bliss asks how a seasonal component could be added to such a swap. Specifically, he asks if either thenotional principal or the swap price can be higher during the reset closest to the winter season and lower for thereset period closest to the summer season. This would allow the swap to more effectively hedge a commoditylike oil, which would have a higher demand in the winter than the summer. Kanter says that a swap can onlyhave seasonal swap prices, and the notional principal must stay constanl. Thus, the solution in such a casewould be to enter into two swaps, one that has an annual reset in the winter and one that has an annual reset inthe summer.Given the information, the most likely reason that Bliss's firm did not earn an incentive fee in the past year wasbecause:

Smiler Industries is a U.S. manufacturer of machine tools and other capital goods. Dat Ng, the CFO of Smiler,feels strongly that Smiler has a competitive advantage in its risk management practices. With this in mind, Nghedges many of the risks associated with Smiler's financial transactions, which include those of a financialsubsidiary. Ng's knowledge of derivatives is extensive, and he often uses them for hedging and in managingSrniler's considerable investment portfolio.Smiler has recently completed a sale to Frexa in Italy, and the receivable is denominated in euros. Thereceivable is €10 million to be received in 90 days. Srniler's bank provides the following information:Smiler borrows short-term funds to meet expenses on a temporary basis and typically makes semiannualinterest payments based on 180-day LIBOR plus a spread of 150 bp. Smiler will need to borrow S25 million in90 days to invest in new equipment. To hedge the interest rate risk on the loan, Ng is considering the purchaseof a call option on 180-day LIBOR with a term to expiration of 90 days, an exercise rate of 4.8%, and a premiumof 0.000943443 of the loan amount. Current 90-day LIBOR is 4.8%.Smiler also has a diversified portfolio of large cap stocks with a current value of $52,750,000, and Ng wants tolower the beta of the portfolio from its current level of 1.25 to 0.9 using S&P 500 futures which have a multiplierof 250. The S&P 500 is currently 1,050, and the futures contract exhibits a beta of 0.98 to the underlying.Because Ng intends to replace the short-term LIBOR-based loan with long-term financing, he wants to hedgethe risk of a 50 bp change in the market rate of the 20-year bond Smiler will issue in 270 days. The currentspread to Treasuries for Smiler's corporate debt is 2.4%. He will use a 270-day, 20-year Treasury bond futurescontract ($100,000 face value) currently priced at 108.5 for the hedge. The CTD bond for the contract has aconversion factor of 1.259 and a dollar duration of $6,932.53. The corporate bond, if issued today, would havean effective duration of 9.94 and has an expected effective duration at issuance of 9.90 based on a constantspread assumption. A regression of the YTM of 20-year corporate bonds with a rating the same as Smiler's onthe YTM of the CTD bond yields a beta of 1.05.If Ng purchases the interest rate call, and 180-day LIBOR at option expiration is 5.73%, the annualized effectiverate for the 180-day loan is closest to: