Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Walter Skinner, CFA, manages a bond portfolio for Director Securities. The bond portfolio is part of a pensionplan trust set up to benefit retirees of Thomas Steel Inc. As part of the investment policy governing the plan andthe bond portfolio, no foreign securities are to be held in the portfolio at any time and no bonds with a creditrating below investment grade are allowable for the bond portfolio. In addition, the bond portfolio must remainunleveraged. The bond portfolio is currently valued at $800 million and has a duration of 6.50. Skinner believesthat interest rates are going to increase, so he wants to lower his portfolio's duration to 4.50. He has decided toachieve the reduction in duration by using swap contracts. He has two possible swaps to choose from:1. Swap A: 4-year swap with quarterly payments.2. Swap B: 5-year swap with semiannual payments.Skinner plans to be the fixed-rate payer in the swap, receiving a floating-rate payment in exchange. Foranalysis, Skinner always assumes the duration of a fixed rate bond is 75% of its term to maturity.Several years ago, Skinner decided to circumvent the policy restrictions on foreign securities by purchasing adual currency bond issued by an American holding company with significant operations in Japan. The bondmakes semiannual fixed interest payments in Japanese yen but will make the final principal payment in U.S.dollars five years from now. Skinner originally purchased the bond to take advantage of the strengtheningrelative position of the yen. The result was an above average return for the bond portfolio for several years.Now, however, he is concerned that the yen is going to begin a weakening trend, as he expects inflation in theJapanese economy to accelerate over the next few years. Knowing Skinner's situation, one of his colleagues,Bill Michaels, suggests the following strategy:"You need to offset your exposure to the Japanese yen by establishing a short position in a synthetic dualcurrency bond that matches the terms of the dual currency bond you purchased for the Thomas Steel bondportfolio. As part of the strategy, you will have to enter into a currency swap as the fixed-rate yen payer. Theswap will neutralize the dual-currency bond position but will unfortunately increase the credit risk exposure ofthe portfolio."Skinner has also spoken to Orval Mann, the senior economist with Director Securities, about his expectationsfor the bond portfolio. Mann has also provided some advice to Skinner in the following comment:"1 know you expect a general increase in interest rates, but I disagree with your assessment of the interest rateshift. I believe interest rates are going to decrease. Therefore, you will want to synthetically remove the callfeatures of any callable bonds in your portfolio by purchasing a payer interest rate swaption."After his lung conversation with Director Securities' senior economist, Orval Mann, Skinner has completelychanged his outlook on interest rates and has decided to extend the duration of his portfolio. The mostappropriate strategy to accomplish this objective using swaps would be to enter into a swap to pay:

Matrix Corporation is a multidivisional company with operations in energy, telecommunications, and shipping.Matrix sponsors a traditional defined benefit pension plan. Plan assets are valued at $5.5 billion, while recentdeclines in interest rates have caused plan liabilities to balloon to $8.3 billion. Average employee age at Matrixis 57.5, which is considerably higher than the industry average, and the ratio of active to retired lives is 1.1. JoeElliot, Matrix's CFO, has made the following statement about the current state of the pension plan."Recent declines in interest rates have caused our pension liabilities to grow faster than ever experienced in ourlong history, but I am sure these low rates are temporary. I have looked at the charts and estimated theprobability of higher interest rates at more than 90%. Given the expected improvement in interest rate levels,plan liabilities will again come back into line with our historical position. Our investment policy will therefore beto invest plan assets in aggressive equity securities. This investment exposure will bring our plan to an overfunded status, which will allow us to use pension income to bolster our profitability."

Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues. Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis. Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity. Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100." Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around." The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year. Of the following VAR calculation methods, the measure that would most likely suit Smitherspoon is the:

Pace Insurance is a large, multi-line insurance company that also owns several proprietary mutual funds. Thefunds are managed individually, but Pace has an investment committee that oversees all of the funds. Thiscommittee is responsible for evaluating the performance of the funds relative to appropriate benchmarks andrelative to the stated investment objectives of each individual fund. During a recent investment committeemeeting, the poor performance of Pace's equity mutual funds was discussed. In particular, the inability of theportfolio managers to outperform their benchmarks was highlighted. The net conclusion of the committee wasto review the performance of the manager responsible for each fund and dismiss those managers whoseperformance had lagged substantially behind the appropriate benchmark.The fund with the worst relative performance is the Pace Mid-Cap Fund, which invests in stocks with acapitalization between S40 billion and $80 billion. A review of the operations of the fund found the following:• The turnover of the fund was almost double that of other similar style mutual funds.• The fund's portfolio manager solicited input from her entire staff prior to making any decision to sell an existingholding.• The beta of the Pace Mid-Cap Fund's portfolio was 60% higher than the beta of other similar style mutualfunds.• No stock is considered for purchase in the Mid-Cap Fund unless the portfolio manager has 15 years offinancial information on that company, plus independent research reports from at least three different analysts.• The portfolio manager refuses to increase her technology sector weighting because of past losses the fundincurred in the sector.• The portfolio manager sold all the fund's energy stocks as the price per barrel of oil rose above $80. Sheexpects oil prices to fall back to the $40 to S50 per barrel range.A committee member made the following two comments:Comment 1: "One reason for the poor recent performance of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund is that the portfoliolacks recognizable companies. I believe that good companies make good investments."Comment 2: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund refuses to acknowledge her mistakes. Sheseems to sell stocks that appreciate, but hold stocks that have declined in value."The supervisor of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund portfolio manager made the following statements:Statement 1: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund has engaged in quarter-end window dressingto make her portfolio look better to investors. The portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as overreaction."Statement 2: "Each time the portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual fund trades a stock, she executes thetrade by buying or selling one-third of the position at a time, with the trades spread over three months. Theportfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as anchoring."Indicate whether Statement 1 and Statement 2 made by the supervisor are correct.

Andre Hickock, CFA, is a newly hired fixed income portfolio manager for Deadwood Investments, LLC. Hickockis reviewing the portfolios of several pension clients that have been assigned to him to manage. The firstportfolio, Montana Hardware, Inc., has the characteristics shown in Figure 1.Hickock is attempting to assess the risk of the Montana Hardware portfolio. The benchmark bond index thatDeadwood uses for pension accounts similar to Montana Hardware has an effective duration of 5.25. Hissupervisor, Carla Mity, has discussed bond risk measurement with Hickock. Mity is most familiar with equity riskmeasures, and is not convinced of the validity of duration as a portfolio risk measure. Mity told Hickock, "I havealways believed that standard deviation is the best measure of bond portfolio risk. You want to know thevolatility, and standard deviation is the most direct measure of volatility."Hickock is also reviewing the bond portfolio of Buffalo Sports, Inc., which is comprised of the following assetsshown in Figure 2.The trustees of the Buffalo Sports pension plan have requested that Deadwood explore alternatives to reducethe risk of the MBS sector of their bond portfolio. Hickock responded to their request as follows:"I believe that the current option-adjusted spread (OAS) on the MBS sector is quite high. In order to reduce yourrisk, I would suggest that we hedge the interest rate risk using a combination of 2-year and 10-year Treasurysecurity futures. I would further suggest that we do not take any steps to hedge spread risk at this time."In assessing the risk of a portfolio containing both bullet maturity corporate bonds and MBS, Hickock shouldalways consider that: