Become CFA Institute Certified with updated CFA-Level-III exam questions and correct answers
Garrison Investments is a money management firm focusing on endowment management for small collegesand universities. Over the past 20 years, the firm has primarily invested in U.S. securities with small allocationsto high quality long-term foreign government bonds. Garrison's largest account, Point University, has a marketvalue of $800 million and an asset allocation as detailed in Figure 1.Figure 1: Point University Asset Allocation
*Bond coupon payments are all semiannual.
Managers at Garrison are concerned that expectations for a strengthening U.S. dollar relative to the British
pound could negatively impact returns to Point University's U.K. bond allocation. Therefore, managers have
collected information on swap and exchange rates. Currently, the swap rates in the United States and the
United Kingdom are 4.9% and 5.3%, respectively. The spot exchange rate is 0.45 GBP/USD. The U.K. bonds
are currently trading at face value.
Garrison recently convinced the board of trustees at Point University that the endowment should allocate a
portion of the portfolio into international equities, specifically European equities. The board has agreed to the
plan but wants the allocation to international equities to be a short-term tactical move. Managers at Garrison
have put together the following proposal for the reallocation:
To minimize trading costs while gaining exposure to international equities, the portfolio can use futures
contracts on the domestic 12-month mid-cap equity index and on the 12-month European equity index. This
strategy will temporarily exchange $80 million of U.S. mid-cap exposure for European equity index exposure.
Relevant data on the futures contracts are provided in Figure 2.
Figure 2: Mid-cap index and European Index Futures Data
Three months after proposing the international diversification plan, Garrison was able to persuade PointUniversity to make a direct short-term investment of $2 million in Haikuza Incorporated (HI), a Japaneseelectronics firm. HI exports its products primarily to the United States and Europe, selling only 30% of itsproduction in Japan. In order to control the costs of its production inputs, HI uses currency futures to mitigateexchange rate fluctuations associated with contractual gold purchases from Australia. In its current contract, HIhas one remaining purchase of Australian gold that will occur in nine months. The company has hedged thepurchase with a long 12-month futures contract on the Australian dollar (AUD).Managers at Garrison are expecting to sell the HI position in one year, but have become nervous about theimpact of an expected depreciation in the value of the Yen relative to the U.S. dollar. Thus, they have decidedto use a currency futures hedge. Analysts at Garrison have estimated that the covariance between the localcurrency returns on HI and changes in the USD/Yen spot rate is -0.184 and that the variance of changes in theUSD/Yen spot rate is 0.92.Which of the following best describes the minimum variance hedge ratio for Garrison's currency futures hedgeon the Haikuza investment?
Dan Draper, CFA is a portfolio manager at Madison Securities. Draper is analyzing several portfolios whichhave just been assigned to him. In each case, there is a clear statement of portfolio objectives and constraints,as welt as an initial strategic asset allocation. However, Draper has found that all of the portfolios haveexperienced changes in asset values. As a result, the current allocations have drifted away from the initialallocation. Draper is considering various rebalancing strategies that would keep the portfolios in line with theirproposed asset allocation targets.Draper spoke to Peter Sterling, a colleague at Madison, about calendar rebalancing. During their conversation,Sterling made the following comments:Comment 1: Calendar rebalancing will be most efficient when the rebalancing frequency considers the volatilityof the asset classes in the portfolio.Comment 2: Calendar rebalancing on an annual basis will typically minimize market impact relative to morefrequent rebalancing.Draper believes that a percentage-of-portfolio rebalancing strategy will be preferable to calendar rebalancing,but he is uncertain as to how to set the corridor widths to trigger rebalancing for each asset class. As anexample, Draper is evaluating the Rogers Corp. pension plan, whose portfolio is described in Figure 1.
Draper has been reviewing Madison files on four high net worth individuals, each of whom has a $1 millionportfolio. He hopes to gain insight as to appropriate rebalancing strategies for these clients. His research so farshows:Client A is 60 years old, and wants to be sure of having at least $800,000 upon his retirement. His risk tolerancedrops dramatically whenever his portfolio declines in value. He agrees with the Madison stock market outlook,which is for a long-term bull market with few reversals.Client B is 35 years old and wants to hold stocks regardless of the value of her portfolio. She also agrees withthe Madison stock market outlook.Client C is 40 years old, and her absolute risk tolerance varies proportionately with the value of her portfolio.She does not agree with the Madison stock market outlook, but expects a choppy stock market, marked bynumerous reversals, over the coming months.In selecting a rebalancing strategy for his clients, Draper would most likely select a constant mix strategy for:
Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., amultinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards'sassistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the lastten years prior to coming to Anderson.Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered lastweek. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that inorder to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls.Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-ratepayer.As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As aresult, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cashflows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notionalprincipal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the followingexchange rate and annual swap interest rates:Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is mostoften hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, isless certain and thus harder to hedge.To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five yearsago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states thatAnderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about $11.4 million totake advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of itsmaturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25. Palmer states that Anderson'sposition in the swap will have a negative duration.For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivityof the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds. The relevantinformation for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration isprovided below.U.S. dollar bond $275,000British bond $155,000British yield beta 1.40Duration of U.S. bond 4.0Duration of British bond 8.5When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bondsto add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer bystating:1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debtmarkets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It istherefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emergingmarket bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets."Regarding his two statements about the characteristics of emerging market debt, is Edwards correct?
Jack Mercer and June Seagram are investment advisors for Northern Advisors. Mercer graduated from aprestigious university in London eight years ago, whereas Seagram is newly graduated from a mid-westernuniversity in the United States. Northern provides investment advice for pension funds, foundations,endowments, and trusts. As part of their services, they evaluate the performance of outside portfolio managers.They are currently scrutinizing the performance of several portfolio managers who work for the ThompsonUniversity endowment.Over the most recent month, the record of the largest manager. Bison Management, is as follows. On March 1,the endowment account with Bison stood at $ 11,200,000. On March 16, the university contributed $4,000,000that they received from a wealthy alumnus. After receiving that contribution, the account was valued at $17,800,000. On March 31, the account was valued at $16,100,000. Using this information, Mercer andSeagram calculated the time-weighted and money-weighted returns for Bison during March. Mercer states thatthe advantage of the time-weighted return is that it is easy to calculate and administer. Seagram states that themoney-weighted return is, however, a better measure of the manager's performance.Mercer and Seagram are also evaluating the performance of Lunar Management. Risk and return data for themost recent fiscal year are shown below for both Bison and Lunar. The minimum acceptable return (MAR) forThompson is the 4.5% spending rate on the endowment, which the endowment has determined using ageometric spending rule. The T-bill return over the same fiscal year was 3.5%. The return on the MSCI WorldIndex was used as the market index. The World index had a return of 9% in dollar terms with a standarddeviation of 23% and a beta of 1.0.
The next day at lunch, Mercer and Seagram discuss alternatives for benchmarks in assessing the performanceof managers. The alternatives discussed that day are manager universes, broad market indices, style indices,factor models, and custom benchmarks. Mercer states that manager universes have the advantage of beingmeasurable but they are subject to survivor bias. Seagram states that manager universes possess only onequality of a valid benchmark.Mercer and Seagram also provide investment advice for a hedge fund, Jaguar Investors. Jaguar specializes inexploiting mispricing in equities and over-the-counter derivatives in emerging markets. They periodically engagein providing foreign currency hedges to small firms in emerging markets when deemed profitable. This mostcommonly occurs when no other provider of these contracts is available to these firms. Jaguar is selling a largeposition in Mexican pesos in the spot market. Furthermore, they have just provided a forward contract to a firmin Russia that allows that firm to sell Swiss francs for Russian rubles in 90 days. Jaguar has also entered into acurrency swap that allows a firm to receive Japanese yen in exchange for paying the Russian ruble.Regarding their statements about manager universes, determine whether Mercer and Seagram are correct orincorrect.
Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?
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