Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Milson Investment Advisors (MIA) specializes in managing fixed income portfolios for institutional clients. Manyof MIA's clients are able to take on substantial portfolio risk and therefore the firm's funds invest in all creditqualities and in international markets. Among its investments, MIA currently holds positions in the debt of Worthinc., Enertech Company, and SBK Company.Worth Inc. is a heavy equipment manufacturer in Germany. The company finances a significant amount of itsfixed assets using bonds. Worth's current debt outstanding is in the form of non-callable bonds issued twoyears ago at a coupon rate of 7.2% and a maturity of 15 years. Worth expects German interest rates to declineby as much as 200 basis points (bps) over the next year and would like to take advantage of the decline. Thecompany has decided to enter into a 2-year interest rate swap with semiannual payments, a swap rate of 5.8%,and a floating rate based on 6-month EURIBOR. The duration of the fixed side of the swap is 1.2. Analysts atMIA have made the following comments regarding Worth's swap plan:• "The duration of the swap from the perspective of Worth is 0.95."• "By entering into the swap, the duration of Worth's long-term liabilities will become smaller, causing the valueof the firm's equity to become more sensitive to changes in interest rates."Enertech Company is a U.S.-based provider of electricity and natural gas. The company uses a large proportionof floating rate notes to finance its operations. The current interest rate on Enertech's floating rate notes, basedon 6-month LIBOR plus 150bp, is 5.5%. To hedge its interest rate risk, Enertech has decided to enter into along interest rate collar. The cap and the floor of the collar have maturities of two years, with settlement dates(in arrears) every six months. The strike rate for the cap is 5.5% and for the floor is 4.5%, based on 6-monthLIBOR, which is forecast to be 5.2%, 6.1%, 4.1%, and 3.8%, in 6,12, 18, and 24 months, respectively. Eachsettlement period consists of 180 days. Analysts at MIA are interested in assessing the attributes of the collar.SBK Company builds oil tankers and other large ships in Norway. The firm has several long-term bond issuesoutstanding with fixed interest rates ranging from 5.0% to 7.5% and maturities ranging from 5 to 12 years.Several years ago, SBK took the pay floating side of a semi-annual settlement swap with a rate of 6.0%, afloating rate based on LIBOR, and a tenor of eight years. The firm now believes interest rates may increase in 6months, but is not 100% confident in this assumption. To hedge the risk of an interest rate increase, given itsinterest rate uncertainty, the firm has sold a payer interest rate swaption with a maturity of 6 months, anunderlying swap rate of 6.0%, and a floating rate based on LIBOR.MIA is considering investing in the debt of Rio Corp, a Brazilian energy company. The investment would be inRio's floating rate notes, currently paying a coupon of 8.0%. MIA's economists are forecasting an interest ratedecline in Brazil over the short term.Determine whether the MIA analysts' comments regarding the duration of the Worth Inc. swap and the effectsof the swap on the company's balance sheet are correct or incorrect.

Pace Insurance is a large, multi-line insurance company that also owns several proprietary mutual funds. Thefunds are managed individually, but Pace has an investment committee that oversees all of the funds. Thiscommittee is responsible for evaluating the performance of the funds relative to appropriate benchmarks andrelative to the stated investment objectives of each individual fund. During a recent investment committeemeeting, the poor performance of Pace's equity mutual funds was discussed. In particular, the inability of theportfolio managers to outperform their benchmarks was highlighted. The net conclusion of the committee wasto review the performance of the manager responsible for each fund and dismiss those managers whoseperformance had lagged substantially behind the appropriate benchmark.The fund with the worst relative performance is the Pace Mid-Cap Fund, which invests in stocks with acapitalization between S40 billion and $80 billion. A review of the operations of the fund found the following:• The turnover of the fund was almost double that of other similar style mutual funds.• The fund's portfolio manager solicited input from her entire staff prior to making any decision to sell an existingholding.• The beta of the Pace Mid-Cap Fund's portfolio was 60% higher than the beta of other similar style mutualfunds.• No stock is considered for purchase in the Mid-Cap Fund unless the portfolio manager has 15 years offinancial information on that company, plus independent research reports from at least three different analysts.• The portfolio manager refuses to increase her technology sector weighting because of past losses the fundincurred in the sector.• The portfolio manager sold all the fund's energy stocks as the price per barrel of oil rose above $80. Sheexpects oil prices to fall back to the $40 to S50 per barrel range.A committee member made the following two comments:Comment 1: "One reason for the poor recent performance of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund is that the portfoliolacks recognizable companies. I believe that good companies make good investments."Comment 2: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund refuses to acknowledge her mistakes. Sheseems to sell stocks that appreciate, but hold stocks that have declined in value."The supervisor of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund portfolio manager made the following statements:Statement 1: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund has engaged in quarter-end window dressingto make her portfolio look better to investors. The portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as overreaction."Statement 2: "Each time the portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual fund trades a stock, she executes thetrade by buying or selling one-third of the position at a time, with the trades spread over three months. Theportfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as anchoring."Indicate whether Statement 1 and Statement 2 made by the supervisor are correct.

Robert Keith, CFA, has begun a new job at CMT Investments as Head of Compliance. Keith has just completed a review of all of CMT's operations, and has interviewed all the firm's portfolio managers. Many are CFA charterholders, but some are not. Keith intends to use the CFA Institute Code and Standards, as well as the Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct, as ethical guidelines for CMT to follow. In the course of Keith's review of the firm's overall practices, he has noted a few situations which potentially need to be addressed. Situation 1: CMT Investments' policy regarding acceptance of gifts and entertainment is not entirely clear. There is general confusion within the firm regarding what is and is not acceptable practice regarding gifts, entertainment and additional compensation. Situation 2: Keith sees inconsistency regarding fee disclosures to clients. In some cases, information related to fees paid to investment managers for investment services provided are properly disclosed. However, a few of the periodic costs, which will affect investment return, are not disclosed to the clients. Most managers are providing clients with investment returns net of fees, but a few are just providing the gross returns. One of the managers stated "providing gross returns is acceptable, as long as I show the fees such that the client can make their own simple calculation of the returns net of fees." Situation 3: Keith has noticed a few gaps in CMT's procedure regarding use of soft dollars. There have been cases where "directed brokerage" has resulted in less than prompt execution of trades. He also found a few cases where a manager paid a higher commission than normal, in order to obtain goods or services. Keith is considering adding two statements to CMT's policy and procedures manual specifically addressing the primary issues he noted. Statement 1: "Commissions paid, and any corresponding benefits received, are the property of the client. The benefit(s) must directly benefit the client. If a manager's client directs the manager to purchase goods or services that do not provide research services that benefit the client, this violates the duty of loyalty to the client.” Statement 2: "In cases of "directed brokerage," if there is concern that the client is not receiving the best execution, it is acceptable to utilize a less than ideal broker, but it must be disclosed to the client that they may not be obtaining the best execution." Situation 4: Keith is still evaluating his data, but it appears that there may be situations where proxies were not voted. After completing his analysis of proxy voting procedures at CMT, Keith wants to insert the proper language into the procedures manual to address proxy voting. Situation 5: Keith is putting into place a "disaster recovery- plan," in order to ensure business continuity in the event of a localized disaster, and also to protect against any type of disruption in the financial markets. This plan includes the following provisions: • Procedures for communicating with clients, especially in the event of extended disruption of services provided. • Alternate arrangement for monitoring and analyzing investments in the event that primary systems become unavailable. • Plans for internal communication and coverage of crucial business functions in the event of disruption at the primary place of business, or a communications breakdown. Keith is considering adding the following provisions to the disaster recovery plan in order to properly comply with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct: Provision 1: "A provision needs to be added incorporating off-site backup for all pertinent account information." Provision 2: "A provision mandating testing of the plan on a company-wide basis, at periodical intervals, should be added." Situation 6: Keith is spending an incredible amount of time on detailed procedures and company policies that are in compliance with the CFA Institute Code and Standards, and also in compliance with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct. As part of this process, he has had several meetings with CMT senior management, and is second-guessing the process. One of the senior managers is indicating that it might be abetter idea to just formally adopt both the Code and Standards and the Asset Manager Code of Conduct, which would make a detailed policy and procedure manual redundant. Keith wants to assure CMT's compliance with the requirements of the CFA Institute Code and Standards of Professional Conduct. Which of the following statements most accurately describes CMT's responsibilities in order to assure compliance?

Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., amultinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards'sassistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the lastten years prior to coming to Anderson.Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered lastweek. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that inorder to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls.Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-ratepayer.As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As aresult, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cashflows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notionalprincipal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the followingexchange rate and annual swap interest rates:Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is mostoften hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, isless certain and thus harder to hedge.To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five yearsago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states thatAnderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about $11.4 million totake advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of itsmaturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25. Palmer states that Anderson'sposition in the swap will have a negative duration.For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivityof the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds. The relevantinformation for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration isprovided below.U.S. dollar bond $275,000British bond $155,000British yield beta 1.40Duration of U.S. bond 4.0Duration of British bond 8.5When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bondsto add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer bystating:1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debtmarkets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It istherefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emergingmarket bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets."Regarding his two statements about the characteristics of emerging market debt, is Edwards correct?

Dakota Watson and Anthony Smith are bond portfolio managers for Northern Capital Investment Advisors,which is based in the U.S. Northern Capital has $2,000 million under management, with S950 million of that inthe bond market. Northern Capital's clients are primarily institutional investors such as insurance companies,foundations, and endowments. Because most clients insist on a margin over the relevant bond benchmark,Watson and Smith actively manage their bond portfolios, while at the same time trying to minimize trackingerror.One of the funds that Northern Capital offers invests in emerging market bonds. An excerpt from its prospectusreveals the following fund objectives and strategies:“The fund generates a return by constructing a portfolio using all major fixed-income sectors within the Asianregion (except Japan) with a bias towards non-government bonds. The fund makes opportunistic investmentsin both investment grade and high yield bonds. Northern Capital analysts seek those bond issues that areexpected to outperform U.S. bonds with similar credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk-Value is added byfinding those bonds that have been overlooked by other developed world bond funds. The fund favors nondollar, local currency denominated securities to avoid the default risk associated with a lack of hard currency onthe part of issuer."Although Northern Capital does examine the availability of excess returns in foreign markets by investingoutside the index in these markets, most of its strategies focus on U.S. bonds and spread analysis of them.Discussing the analysis of spreads in the U.S. bond market, Watson comments on the usefulness of the optionadjusted spread and the swap spread and makes the following statements:Statement 1: Due to changes in the structure of the primary bond market in the U.S., the option adjustedspread is increasingly valuable for analyzing the attractiveness of bond investments.Statement 2: The advantage of the swap spread framework is that investors can compare the relativeattractiveness of fixed-rate and floating-rate bond markets.Watson's view of the U.S. economy is decidedly bearish. She is concerned that the recent withdrawal of liquidityfrom the U.S. financial system will result in a U.S. recession, possibly even a depression. She forecasts thatinterest rates in the U.S. will continue to fall as the demand for loanable funds declines with the lack of businessinvestment. Meanwhile, she believes that the Federal Reserve will continue to keep short-term rates low inorder to stimulate the economy. Although she sees the level of yields declining, she believes that the spread onrisky securities will increase due to the decline in business prospects. She therefore has reallocated her bondportfolio away from high-yield bonds and towards investment grade bonds.Smith is less decided about the economy. However, his trading strategy has been quite successful in the past.As an example of his strategy, he recently sold a 20-year AA-rated $50,000 Mahan Corporation bond with a7.75% coupon that he had purchased at par. With the proceeds, he then bought a newly issued A-rated QuincyCorporation bond that offered an 8.25% coupon. By swapping the first bond for the second bond, he enhancedhis annual income, which he considers quite favorable given the declining yields in the market.Watson has become quite interested in the mortgage market. With the anticipated decline in interest rates, sheexpects that the yields on mortgages will decline. As a result, she has reallocated the portion of NorthernCapital's bond portfolio dedicated to mortgages. She has shifted the holdings from 8.50% coupon mortgages to7.75% coupon mortgages, reasoning that if interest rates do drop, the lower coupon mortgages will rise in pricemore than the higher coupon mortgages. She identifies this trade as a structure trade.Smith is examining the liquidity of three bonds. Their characteristics are listed in the table below:Which of the following best describes the relative value analysis used in the Northern Capita! Emerging marketbond fund? It is a: