Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Pace Insurance is a large, multi-line insurance company that also owns several proprietary mutual funds. Thefunds are managed individually, but Pace has an investment committee that oversees all of the funds. Thiscommittee is responsible for evaluating the performance of the funds relative to appropriate benchmarks andrelative to the stated investment objectives of each individual fund. During a recent investment committeemeeting, the poor performance of Pace's equity mutual funds was discussed. In particular, the inability of theportfolio managers to outperform their benchmarks was highlighted. The net conclusion of the committee wasto review the performance of the manager responsible for each fund and dismiss those managers whoseperformance had lagged substantially behind the appropriate benchmark.The fund with the worst relative performance is the Pace Mid-Cap Fund, which invests in stocks with acapitalization between S40 billion and $80 billion. A review of the operations of the fund found the following:• The turnover of the fund was almost double that of other similar style mutual funds.• The fund's portfolio manager solicited input from her entire staff prior to making any decision to sell an existingholding.• The beta of the Pace Mid-Cap Fund's portfolio was 60% higher than the beta of other similar style mutualfunds.• No stock is considered for purchase in the Mid-Cap Fund unless the portfolio manager has 15 years offinancial information on that company, plus independent research reports from at least three different analysts.• The portfolio manager refuses to increase her technology sector weighting because of past losses the fundincurred in the sector.• The portfolio manager sold all the fund's energy stocks as the price per barrel of oil rose above $80. Sheexpects oil prices to fall back to the $40 to S50 per barrel range.A committee member made the following two comments:Comment 1: "One reason for the poor recent performance of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund is that the portfoliolacks recognizable companies. I believe that good companies make good investments."Comment 2: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund refuses to acknowledge her mistakes. Sheseems to sell stocks that appreciate, but hold stocks that have declined in value."The supervisor of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund portfolio manager made the following statements:Statement 1: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund has engaged in quarter-end window dressingto make her portfolio look better to investors. The portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as overreaction."Statement 2: "Each time the portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual fund trades a stock, she executes thetrade by buying or selling one-third of the position at a time, with the trades spread over three months. Theportfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as anchoring."Indicate whether Statement 1 and Statement 2 made by the supervisor are correct.

Joan Weaver, CFA and Kim McNally, CFA are analysts for Cardinal Fixed Income Management. Cardinalprovides investment advisory services to pension funds, endowments, and other institutions in the U.S. andCanada. Cardinal recommends positions in investment-grade corporate and government bonds.Cardinal has largely advocated the use of passive approaches to bond investments, where the predominantholding consists of an indexed or enhanced indexed bond portfolio. They are exploring, however, the possibilityof using a greater degree of active management to increase excess returns. The analysts have made thefollowing statements.• Weaver: "An advantage of both enhanced indexing by matching primary risk factors and enhanced indexingby minor risk factor mismatching is that there is the potential for excess returns, but the duration of the portfoliois matched with that of the index, thereby limiting the portion of tracking error resulting from interest rate risk."• McNally: "The use of active management by larger risk factor mismatches typically involves large durationmismatches from the index, in an effort to capitalize on interest rate forecasts."As part of their increased emphasis on active bond management, Cardinal has retained the services of aneconomic consultant to provide expectations input on factors such as interest rate levels, interest rate volatility,and credit spreads. During his presentation, the economist states that he believes long-term interest ratesshould fall over the next year, but that short-term rates should gradually increase. Weaver and McNally arecurrently advising an institutional client that wishes to maintain the duration of its bond portfolio at 6.7. In light ofthe economic forecast, they are considering three portfolios that combine the following three bonds in varyingamounts.Weaver and McNally next examine an investment in a semiannual coupon bond newly issued by the ManixCorporation, a firm with a credit rating of AA by Moody's. The specifics of the bond purchase are providedbelow given Weaver's projections. It is Cardinal's policy that bonds be evaluated for purchase on a total returnbasis.One of Cardinal's clients, the Johnson Investment Fund (JIF), has instructed Weaver and McNally torecommend the appropriate debt investment for $125,000,000 in funds. JIF is willing to invest an additional15% of the portfolio using leverage. JIF requires that the portfolio duration not exceed 5.5. Weaverrecommends that JIF invest in bonds with a duration of 5.2. The maximum allowable leverage will be used andthe borrowed funds will have a duration of 0.8. JIF is considering investing in bonds with options and has askedMcNally to provide insight into these investments. McNally makes the following comments:"Due to the increasing sophistication of bond issuers, the amount of bonds with put options is increasing, andthese bonds sell at a discount relative to comparable bullets. Putables are quite attractive when interest ratesrise, but, we should be careful if with them, because valuation models often fail to account for the credit risk ofthe issuer."Another client, Blair Portfolio Managers, has asked Cardinal to provide advice on duration management. Oneyear ago, their portfolio had a market value of $3,010,444 and a dollar duration of $108,000; current figures areprovided below:The expected bond equivalent yield for the Manix Bond, using total return analysis, is closest to:

Joan Nicholson, CFA, and Kim Fluellen, CFA, sit on the risk management committee for Thomasville AssetManagement. Although Thomasville manages the majority of its investable assets, it also utilizes outside firmsfor special situations such as market neutral and convertible arbitrage strategies. Thomasville has hired ahedge fund, Boston Advisors, for both of these strategies. The managers for the Boston Advisors funds areFrank Amato, CFA, and Joseph Garvin, CFA. Amato uses a market neutral strategy and has generated a returnof S20 million this year on the $100 million Thomasville has invested with him. Garvin uses a convertiblearbitrage strategy and has lost $15 million this year on the $200 million Thomasville has invested with him, withmost of the loss coming in the last quarter of the year. Thomasville pays each outside manager an incentive feeof 20% on profits. During the risk management committee meeting Nicholson evaluates the characteristics ofthe arrangement with Boston Advisors. Nicholson states that the asymmetric nature of Thomasville's contractwith Boston Advisors creates adverse consequences for Thomasville's net profits and that the compensationcontract resembles a put option owned by Boston Advisors.Upon request, Fluellen provides a risk assessment for the firm's large cap growth portfolio using a monthlydollar VAR. To do so, Fluellen obtains the following statistics from the fund manager. The value of the fund is$80 million and has an annual expected return of 14.4%. The annual standard deviation of returns is 21.50%.Assuming a standard normal distribution, 5% of the potential portfolio values are 1.65 standard deviationsbelow the expected return.Thomasville periodically engages in options trading for hedging purposes or when they believe that options aremispriced. One of their positions is a long position in a call option for Moffett Corporation. The option is aEuropean option with a 3-month maturity. The underlying stock price is $27 and the strike price of the option is$25. The option sells for S2.86. Thomasville has also sold a put on the stock of the McNeill Corporation. Theoption is an American option with a 2-month maturity. The underlying stock price is $52 and the strike price ofthe option is $55. The option sells for $3.82. Fluellen assesses the credit risk of these options to Thomasvilleand states that the current credit risk of the Moffett option is $2.86 and the current credit risk of the McNeilloption is $3.82.Thomasville also uses options quite heavily in their Special Strategies Portfolio. This portfolio seeks to exploitmispriced assets using the leverage provided by options contracts. Although this fund has achieved somespectacular returns, it has also produced some rather large losses on days of high market volatility. Nicholsonhas calculated a 5% VAR for the fund at $13.9 million. In most years, the fund has produced losses exceeding$13.9 million in 13 of the 250 trading days in a year, on average. Nicholson is concerned about the accuracy ofthe estimated VAR because when the losses exceed $13.9 million, they are typically much greater than $13.9million.In addition to using options, Thomasville also uses swap contracts for hedging interest rate risk and currencyexposures. Fluellen has been assigned the task of evaluating the credit risk of these contracts. Thecharacteristics of the swap contracts Thomasville uses are shown in Figure 1.Fluellen later is asked to describe credit risk in general to the risk management committee. She states thatcross-default provisions generally protect a creditor because they prevent a debtor from declaring immediatedefault on the obligation owed to the creditor when the debtor defaults on other obligations. Fluellen also statesthat credit risk and credit VAR can be quickly calculated because bond rating firms provide extensive data onthe defaults for investment grade and junk grade corporate debt at reasonable prices.Which of the following best describes the accuracy of the VAR measure calculated for the Special StrategiesPortfolio?

Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., amultinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards'sassistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the lastten years prior to coming to Anderson.Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered lastweek. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that inorder to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls.Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-ratepayer.As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As aresult, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cashflows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notionalprincipal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the followingexchange rate and annual swap interest rates:Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is mostoften hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, isless certain and thus harder to hedge.To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five yearsago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states thatAnderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about $11.4 million totake advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of itsmaturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25. Palmer states that Anderson'sposition in the swap will have a negative duration.For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivityof the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds. The relevantinformation for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration isprovided below.U.S. dollar bond $275,000British bond $155,000British yield beta 1.40Duration of U.S. bond 4.0Duration of British bond 8.5When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bondsto add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer bystating:1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debtmarkets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It istherefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emergingmarket bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets."Regarding his two statements about the characteristics of emerging market debt, is Edwards correct?

Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?