Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., amultinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards'sassistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the lastten years prior to coming to Anderson.Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered lastweek. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that inorder to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls.Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-ratepayer.As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As aresult, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cashflows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notionalprincipal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the followingexchange rate and annual swap interest rates:Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is mostoften hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, isless certain and thus harder to hedge.To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five yearsago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states thatAnderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about $11.4 million totake advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of itsmaturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25. Palmer states that Anderson'sposition in the swap will have a negative duration.For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivityof the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds. The relevantinformation for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration isprovided below.U.S. dollar bond $275,000British bond $155,000British yield beta 1.40Duration of U.S. bond 4.0Duration of British bond 8.5When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bondsto add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer bystating:1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debtmarkets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It istherefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emergingmarket bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets."Regarding his two statements about the characteristics of emerging market debt, is Edwards correct?

Gabrielle Reneau, CFA, and Jack Belanger specialize in options strategies at the brokerage firm of Damon andDamon. They employ fairly sophisticated strategies to construct positions with limited risk, to profit from futurevolatility estimates, and to exploit arbitrage opportunities. Damon and Damon also provide advice to outsideportfolio managers on the appropriate use of options strategies. Damon and Damon prefer to use, andrecommend, options written on widely traded indices such as the S&P 500 due to their higher liquidity.However, they also use options written on individual stocks when the investor has a position in the underlyingstock or when mispricing and/or trading depth exists.In order to trade in the one-year maturity puts and calls for the S&P 500 stock index, Reneau and Belangercontact the chief economists at Damon and Damon, Mark Blair and Fran Robinson. Blair recently joined Damonand Damon after a successful stint at a London investment bank. Robinson has been with Damon and Damonfor the past ten years and has a considerable record of success in forecasting macroeconomic activity. In hisforecasts for the U.S. economy over the next year, Blair is quite bullish, for both the U.S. economy and the S&P500 stock index. Blair believes that the U.S. economy will grow at 2% more than expected over the next year.He also states that labor productivity will be higher than expected, given increased productivity through the useof technological advances. He expects that these technological advances will result in higher earnings for U.S.firms over the next year and over the long run.Reneau believes that the best S&P 500 option strategy to exploit Blair's forecast involves two options of thesame maturity, one with a low exercise price, and the other with a high exercise price. The beginning stockprice is usually below the two option strike prices. She states that the benefit of this strategy is that themaximum loss is limited to the difference between the two option prices.Belanger is unsure that Blair's forecast is correct. He states that his own reading of the economy is for acontinued holding pattern of low growth, with a similar projection for the stock market as a whole. He states thatDamon and Damon may want to pursue an options strategy where a put and call of the same maturity andsame exercise price are purchased. He asserts that such a strategy would have losses limited to the total costof the two options.Reneau and Belanger are also currently examining various positions in the options of Brendan Industries.Brendan Industries is a large-cap manufacturing firm with headquarters in the midwestern United States. Thefirm has both puts and calls sold on the Chicago Board Options Exchange. Their options have good liquidity forthe near money puts and calls and for those puts and calls with maturities less than four months. Reneaubelieves that Brendan Industries will benefit from the economic expansion forecasted by Mark Blair, the Damonand Damon economist. She decides that the best option strategy to exploit these expectations is for her topursue the same strategy she has delineated for the market as a whole.Shares of Brendan Industries are currently trading at $38. The following are the prices for their exchangetraded options.As a mature firm in a mature industry, Brendan Industries stock has historically had low volatility. However,Belanger's analysis indicates that with a lawsuit pending against Brendan Industries, the volatility of the stockprice over the next 60 days is greater by several orders of magnitude than the implied volatility of the options.He believes that Damon and Damon should attempt to exploit this projected increase in Brendan Industries1volatility by using an options strategy where a put and call of the same maturity and same exercise price areutilized. He advocates using the least expensive strategy possible.During their discussions, Reneau cites a counter example to Brendan Industries from last year. She recalls thatNano Networks, a technology firm, had a stock price that stayed fairly stable despite expectations to thecontrary. In this case, she utilized an options strategy where three different calls were used. Profits were earnedon the strategy because Nano Networks' stock price stayed fairly stable. Even if the stock price had becomevolatile, losses would have been limited.Later that week, Reneau and Belanger discuss various credit option strategies during a lunch time presentationto Damon and Damon client portfolio managers. During their discussion, Reneau describes a credit optionstrategy that pays the holder a fixed sum, which is agreed upon when the option is written, and occurs in theevent that an issue or issuer goes into default. Reneau declares that this strategy can take the form of eitherputs or calls. Belanger states that this strategy is known as either a credit spread call option strategy or a creditspread put option strategy.Reneau and Belanger continue by discussing the benefits of using credit options. Reneau mentions that creditoptions written on an underlying asset will protect against declines in asset valuation. Belanger says that creditspread options protect against adverse movements of the credit spread over a referenced benchmark.Assume Reneau applies the options strategy used earlier for Nano Networks. Assuming there is a 3-month 45call on Brendan Industries trading at $1.00, calculate the maximum gain and maximum loss on this position.Max gain Max loss

Mark Rolle, CFA, is the manager of the international bond fund for the Ryder Investment Advisory. He isresponsible for bond selection as well as currency hedging decisions. His assistant is Joanne Chen, acandidate for the Level 1 CFA exam.Rolle is interested in the relationship between interest rates and exchange rates for Canada and Great Britain.He observes that the spot exchange rate between the Canadian dollar (C$) and the British pound is C$1.75/£.Also, the 1-year interest rate in Canada is 4.0% and the 1-year interest rate in Great Britain is 11.0%. Thecurrent 1-year forward rate is C$1.60/£.Rolle is evaluating the bonds from the Knauff company and the Tatehiki company, for which information isprovided in the table below. The Knauff company bond is denominated in euros and the Tatehiki company bondis denominated in yen. The bonds have similar risk and maturities, and Ryder's investors reside in the UnitedStates.Provided this information, Rolle must decide which country's bonds are most attractive if a forward hedge ofcurrency exposure is used. Furthermore, assuming that both country's bonds are bought, Rolle must alsodecide whether or not to hedge the currency exposure.Rolle also has a position in a bond issued in Korea and denominated in Korean won. Unfortunately, he is havingdifficulty obtaining a forward contract for the won on favorable terms. As an alternative hedge, he has entered aforward contract that allows him to sell yen in one year, when he anticipates liquidating his Korean bond. Hisreason for choosing the yen is that it is positively correlated with the won.One of Ryder's services is to provide consulting advice to firms that are interested in interest rate hedgingstrategies. One such firm is Crawfordville Bank. One of the loans Crawfordville has outstanding has an interestrate of LIBOR plus a spread of 1.5%. The chief financial officer at Crawfordville is worried that interest ratesmay increase and would like to hedge this exposure. Rolle is contemplating either an interest rate cap or aninterest rate floor as a hedge.Additionally, Rolle is analyzing the best hedge for Ryder's portfolio of fixed rate coupon bonds. Rolle iscontemplating using either a covered call or a protective put on a T-bond futures contract.The hedge that Rolle uses to hedge the currency exposure of the Korean bond is best referred to as a:

Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domesticand international securities.During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% ispaid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate changescenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. Inresponse, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealersusing repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate isusually quite low. "2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of thecollateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage onbond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio underdiscussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. Theexpected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern aboutthe risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. Inresponse, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making thefollowing statements:1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since itconsiders all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificiallyinflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returnsbelow a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expectedreturn distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual lossif the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfallrisk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixedcoupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further withinthe next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at alower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and hasfound that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debtwould be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bondat a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy apayer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms ofeach instrument are provided below:Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%Current Euribor7.20%Projected Euribor in one year5.90%Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call intheir old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,are the comments correct?

Carl Cramer is a recent hire at Derivatives Specialists Inc. (DSI), a small consulting firm that advises a varietyof institutions on the management of credit risk. Some of DSI's clients are very familiar with risk managementtechniques whereas others are not. Cramer has been assigned the task of creating a handbook on credit risk,its possible impact, and its management. His immediate supervisor, Christine McNally, will assist Cramer in thecreation of the handbook and will review it. Before she took a position at DSI, McNally advised banks and otherinstitutions on the use of value-at-risk (VAR) as well as credit-at-risk (CAR).Cramer's first task is to address the basic dimensions of credit risk. He states that the first dimension of creditrisk is the probability of an event that will cause a loss. The second dimension of credit risk is the amount lost,which is a function of the dollar amount recovered when a loss event occurs. Cramer recalls the considerabledifficulty he faced when transacting with Johnson Associates, a firm which defaulted on a contract with theGrich Company. Grich forced Johnson Associates into bankruptcy and Johnson Associates was declared indefault of all its agreements. Unfortunately, DSI then had to wait until the bankruptcy court decided on all claimsbefore it could settle the agreement with Johnson Associates.McNally mentions that Cramer should include a statement about the time dimension of credit risk. She statesthat the two primary time dimensions of credit risk are current and future. Current credit risk relates to thepossibility of default on current obligations, while future credit risk relates to potential default on futureobligations. If a borrower defaults and claims bankruptcy, a creditor can file claims representing the face valueof current obligations and the present value of future obligations. Cramer adds that combining current andpotential credit risk analysis provides the firm's total credit risk exposure and that current credit risk is usually areliable predictor of a borrower's potential credit risk.As DSI has clients with a variety of forward contracts, Cramer then addresses the credit risks associated withforward agreements. Cramer states that long forward contracts gain in value when the market price of theunderlying increases above the contract price. McNally encourages Cramer to include an example of credit riskand forward contracts in the handbook. She offers the following:A forward contract sold by Palmer Securities has six months until the delivery date and a contract price of 50.The underlying asset has no cash flows or storage costs and is currently priced at 50. In the contract, no fundswere exchanged upfront.Cramer also describes how a client firm of DSI can control the credit risks in their derivatives transactions. Hewrites that firms can make use of netting arrangements, create a special purpose vehicle, require collateralfrom counterparties, and require a mark-to-market provision. McNally adds that Cramer should include adiscussion of some newer forms of credit protection in his handbook. McNally thinks credit derivativesrepresent an opportunity for DSL She believes that one type of credit derivative that should figure prominently intheir handbook is total return swaps. She asserts that to purchase protection through a total return swap, theholder of a credit asset will agree to pass the total return on the asset to the protection seller (e.g., a swapdealer) in exchange for a single, fixed payment representing the discounted present value of expected cashflows from the asset.A DSI client, Weaver Trading, has a bond that they are concerned will increase in credit risk. Weaver would likeprotection against this event in the form of a payment if the bond's yield spread increases beyond LIBOR plus3%. Weaver Trading prefers a cash settlement.Later that week, Cramer and McNally visit a client's headquarters and discuss the potential hedge of a bondissued by Cuellar Motors. Cuellar manufactures and markets specialty luxury motorcycles. The client isconsidering hedging the bond using a credit spread forward, because he is concerned that a downturn in theeconomy could result in a default on the Cuellar bond. The client holds $2,000,000 in par of the Cuellar bondand the bond's coupons are paid annually. The bond's current spread over the U.S. Treasury rate is 2.5%. Thecharacteristics of the forward contract are shown below.Information on the Credit Spread ForwardRegarding their statements concerning current and future credit risk, determine whether Cramer and McNallyare correct or incorrect.