Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues. Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis. Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity. Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100." Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around." The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year. Of the following VAR calculation methods, the measure that would most likely suit Smitherspoon is the:

Security analysts Andrew Tian, CFA, and Cameron Wong, CFA, are attending an investment symposium at theSingapore Investment Analyst Society. The focus of the symposium is capital market expectations and relativeasset valuations across markets. Many highly-respected practitioners and academics from across the AsiaPacific region are on hand to make presentations and participate in panel discussions.The first presenter, Lillian So, President of the Society, speaks on market expectations and tools for estimatingintrinsic valuations. She notes that analysts attempting to gauge expectations are often subject to variouspitfalls that subjectively skew their estimates. She also points out that there are potential problems relating to achoice of models, not all of which describe risk the same way. She then provides the following data to illustratehow analysts might go about estimating expectations and intrinsic values.The next speaker, Clive Smyth, is a member of the exchange rate committee at the Bank of New Zealand. Hispresentation concerns the links between spot currency rates and forecasted exchange rates. He states thatforeign exchange rates are linked by several forces including purchasing power parity (PPP) and interest rateparity (IRP). He tells his audience that the relationship between exchange rates and PPP is strongest in theshort run, while the relationship between exchange rates and IRP is strongest in the long run. Smyth goes on tosay that when a country's economy becomes more integrated with the larger world economy, this can have aprofound impact on the cost of capital and asset valuations in that country.The final speaker in the session directed his discussion toward emerging market investments. This discussion,by Hector Ruiz, head of emerging market investment for the Chilean Investment Board, was primarilyconcerned with how emerging market risk differs from that in developed markets and how to evaluate thepotential of emerging market investments. He noted that sometimes an economic crisis in one country canspread to other countries in the area, and that asset returns often exhibit a greater degree of non-normality thanin developed markets.Ruiz concluded his presentation with the data in the tables below to illustrate factors that should be consideredduring the decision-making process for portfolio managers who are evaluating investments in emergingmarkets.Determine which of the following characteristics of emerging market debt investing presents the global fixedincome portfolio manager with the best potential to generate enhanced returns.

Carl Cramer is a recent hire at Derivatives Specialists Inc. (DSI), a small consulting firm that advises a varietyof institutions on the management of credit risk. Some of DSI's clients are very familiar with risk managementtechniques whereas others are not. Cramer has been assigned the task of creating a handbook on credit risk,its possible impact, and its management. His immediate supervisor, Christine McNally, will assist Cramer in thecreation of the handbook and will review it. Before she took a position at DSI, McNally advised banks and otherinstitutions on the use of value-at-risk (VAR) as well as credit-at-risk (CAR).Cramer's first task is to address the basic dimensions of credit risk. He states that the first dimension of creditrisk is the probability of an event that will cause a loss. The second dimension of credit risk is the amount lost,which is a function of the dollar amount recovered when a loss event occurs. Cramer recalls the considerabledifficulty he faced when transacting with Johnson Associates, a firm which defaulted on a contract with theGrich Company. Grich forced Johnson Associates into bankruptcy and Johnson Associates was declared indefault of all its agreements. Unfortunately, DSI then had to wait until the bankruptcy court decided on all claimsbefore it could settle the agreement with Johnson Associates.McNally mentions that Cramer should include a statement about the time dimension of credit risk. She statesthat the two primary time dimensions of credit risk are current and future. Current credit risk relates to thepossibility of default on current obligations, while future credit risk relates to potential default on futureobligations. If a borrower defaults and claims bankruptcy, a creditor can file claims representing the face valueof current obligations and the present value of future obligations. Cramer adds that combining current andpotential credit risk analysis provides the firm's total credit risk exposure and that current credit risk is usually areliable predictor of a borrower's potential credit risk.As DSI has clients with a variety of forward contracts, Cramer then addresses the credit risks associated withforward agreements. Cramer states that long forward contracts gain in value when the market price of theunderlying increases above the contract price. McNally encourages Cramer to include an example of credit riskand forward contracts in the handbook. She offers the following:A forward contract sold by Palmer Securities has six months until the delivery date and a contract price of 50.The underlying asset has no cash flows or storage costs and is currently priced at 50. In the contract, no fundswere exchanged upfront.Cramer also describes how a client firm of DSI can control the credit risks in their derivatives transactions. Hewrites that firms can make use of netting arrangements, create a special purpose vehicle, require collateralfrom counterparties, and require a mark-to-market provision. McNally adds that Cramer should include adiscussion of some newer forms of credit protection in his handbook. McNally thinks credit derivativesrepresent an opportunity for DSL She believes that one type of credit derivative that should figure prominently intheir handbook is total return swaps. She asserts that to purchase protection through a total return swap, theholder of a credit asset will agree to pass the total return on the asset to the protection seller (e.g., a swapdealer) in exchange for a single, fixed payment representing the discounted present value of expected cashflows from the asset.A DSI client, Weaver Trading, has a bond that they are concerned will increase in credit risk. Weaver would likeprotection against this event in the form of a payment if the bond's yield spread increases beyond LIBOR plus3%. Weaver Trading prefers a cash settlement.Later that week, Cramer and McNally visit a client's headquarters and discuss the potential hedge of a bondissued by Cuellar Motors. Cuellar manufactures and markets specialty luxury motorcycles. The client isconsidering hedging the bond using a credit spread forward, because he is concerned that a downturn in theeconomy could result in a default on the Cuellar bond. The client holds $2,000,000 in par of the Cuellar bondand the bond's coupons are paid annually. The bond's current spread over the U.S. Treasury rate is 2.5%. Thecharacteristics of the forward contract are shown below.Information on the Credit Spread ForwardDetermine whether the forward contracts sold by Palmer Securities have current and/or potential credit risk.

John Rawlins is a bond portfolio manager for Waimea Management, a U.S.-based portfolio management firm. Waimea specializes in the management of equity and fixed income portfolios for large institutional investors such as pension funds, insurance companies, and endowments. Rawlins uses bond futures contracts for both hedging and speculative positions. He frequently uses futures contracts for tactical asset allocation because, relative to cash instruments, futures have lower transactions costs and margin requirements. They also allow for short positions and longer duration positions not available with cash market instruments. Rawlins has a total of approximately $750 million of assets under management. In one of his client portfolios, Rawlins currently holds the following positions:The dollar duration of the cheapest to deliver bond (CTD) is $10,596.40 and the conversion factor is 1.3698.In a discussion of this bond hedge, Rawlins confers with John Tejada, his assistant. Tejada states that he hasregressed the corporate bond's yield against the yield for the CTD and has found that the slope coefficient forthis regression is 1.0. He states his results confirm the assumptions made by Rawlins for his hedgingcalculations. Rawlins states that had Tejada found a slope coefficient greater than one, the number of futurescontracts needed to hedge a position would decrease (relative to the regression coefficient being equal to one).In addition to hedging specific bond positions, Rawlins tends to be quite active in individual bond managementby moving in and out of specific issues to take advantage of temporary mispricing. Although the turnover in hisportfolio is sometimes quite high, he believes that by using his gut instincts he can outperform a buy-and-holdstrategy. Tejada on the other hand prefers using statistical software and simulation to help him find undervaluedbond issues. Although Tejada has recently graduated from a prestigious university with a master's degree infinance, Rawlins has not given Tejada full rein in decision-making because he believes that Tejada's approachneeds further evaluation over a period of both falling and rising interest rates, as well as in different creditenvironments.Rawlins and Tejada are evaluating two individual bonds for purchase. The first bond was issued by Dynacom, aU.S. telecommunications firm. This bond is denominated in dollars. The second bond was issued by BergamoMetals, an Italian based mining and metal fabrication firm. The Bergamo bond is denominated in euros. Theholding period for either bond is three months.The characteristics of the bonds are as follows:3-month cash interest rates are 1% in the United States and 2.5% in the European Union. Rawlins and Tejadawill hedge the receipt of euro interest and principal from the Bergamo bond using a forward contract on euros.Rawlins evaluates these two bonds and decides that over the next three months, he will invest in the Dynacombond. He notes that although (he Bergamo bond has a yield advantage of 1% over the next quarter, the euro isat a three month forward discount of approximately 1.5%. Therefore, he favors the Dynacom bond because thenet return advantage for the Dynacom bond is 0.5% over the next three months.Tejada does his own analysis and states that, although he agrees with Rawlins that the Dynacom bond has ayield advantage, he is concerned about the credit quality of the Dynacom bond. Specifically, he has heardrumors that the chief executive and the chairman of the board at Dynacom are both being investigated by theU.S. Securities and Exchange Commission for possible manipulation of Dynacom's stock price, just prior to theexercise of their options in the firm's stock. He believes that the resulting fallout from this alleged incident couldbe damaging to Dynacom's bond price.Tejada analyzes the potential impact on Dynacom's bond price using breakeven analysis. He believes thatnews of the incident could increase the yield on Dynacom's bond by 0.75%. Under this scenario, he states thathe would favor the Bergamo bond over the next three months, assuming that the yield on the Bergamo bondstays constant. Rawlins reviews Tejada's breakeven analysis and states that though he is appreciative ofTejada's efforts, the analysis relies on an approximation.Suppose that the original dollar duration for a 100 basis point change in interest rates was $4,901,106 and thatthe bond prices remain constant during the year. Based upon the durations one year from today, and assuminga proportionate investment in each of the three bonds, the amount of cash that will need to be invested torestore the average dollar duration to the original level is closest to:

Andre Hickock, CFA, is a newly hired fixed income portfolio manager for Deadwood Investments, LLC. Hickockis reviewing the portfolios of several pension clients that have been assigned to him to manage. The firstportfolio, Montana Hardware, Inc., has the characteristics shown in Figure 1.Hickock is attempting to assess the risk of the Montana Hardware portfolio. The benchmark bond index thatDeadwood uses for pension accounts similar to Montana Hardware has an effective duration of 5.25. Hissupervisor, Carla Mity, has discussed bond risk measurement with Hickock. Mity is most familiar with equity riskmeasures, and is not convinced of the validity of duration as a portfolio risk measure. Mity told Hickock, "I havealways believed that standard deviation is the best measure of bond portfolio risk. You want to know thevolatility, and standard deviation is the most direct measure of volatility."Hickock is also reviewing the bond portfolio of Buffalo Sports, Inc., which is comprised of the following assetsshown in Figure 2.The trustees of the Buffalo Sports pension plan have requested that Deadwood explore alternatives to reducethe risk of the MBS sector of their bond portfolio. Hickock responded to their request as follows:"I believe that the current option-adjusted spread (OAS) on the MBS sector is quite high. In order to reduce yourrisk, I would suggest that we hedge the interest rate risk using a combination of 2-year and 10-year Treasurysecurity futures. I would further suggest that we do not take any steps to hedge spread risk at this time."In assessing the risk of a portfolio containing both bullet maturity corporate bonds and MBS, Hickock shouldalways consider that: