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Become CFA Institute Certified with updated CFA-Level-III exam questions and correct answers
Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues. Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis. Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity. Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100." Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around." The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year. Of the following VAR calculation methods, the measure that would most likely suit Smitherspoon is the:
Garrison Investments is a money management firm focusing on endowment management for small collegesand universities. Over the past 20 years, the firm has primarily invested in U.S. securities with small allocationsto high quality long-term foreign government bonds. Garrison's largest account, Point University, has a marketvalue of $800 million and an asset allocation as detailed in Figure 1.Figure 1: Point University Asset Allocation
*Bond coupon payments are all semiannual.
Managers at Garrison are concerned that expectations for a strengthening U.S. dollar relative to the British
pound could negatively impact returns to Point University's U.K. bond allocation. Therefore, managers have
collected information on swap and exchange rates. Currently, the swap rates in the United States and the
United Kingdom are 4.9% and 5.3%, respectively. The spot exchange rate is 0.45 GBP/USD. The U.K. bonds
are currently trading at face value.
Garrison recently convinced the board of trustees at Point University that the endowment should allocate a
portion of the portfolio into international equities, specifically European equities. The board has agreed to the
plan but wants the allocation to international equities to be a short-term tactical move. Managers at Garrison
have put together the following proposal for the reallocation:
To minimize trading costs while gaining exposure to international equities, the portfolio can use futures
contracts on the domestic 12-month mid-cap equity index and on the 12-month European equity index. This
strategy will temporarily exchange $80 million of U.S. mid-cap exposure for European equity index exposure.
Relevant data on the futures contracts are provided in Figure 2.
Figure 2: Mid-cap index and European Index Futures Data
Three months after proposing the international diversification plan, Garrison was able to persuade PointUniversity to make a direct short-term investment of $2 million in Haikuza Incorporated (HI), a Japaneseelectronics firm. HI exports its products primarily to the United States and Europe, selling only 30% of itsproduction in Japan. In order to control the costs of its production inputs, HI uses currency futures to mitigateexchange rate fluctuations associated with contractual gold purchases from Australia. In its current contract, HIhas one remaining purchase of Australian gold that will occur in nine months. The company has hedged thepurchase with a long 12-month futures contract on the Australian dollar (AUD).Managers at Garrison are expecting to sell the HI position in one year, but have become nervous about theimpact of an expected depreciation in the value of the Yen relative to the U.S. dollar. Thus, they have decidedto use a currency futures hedge. Analysts at Garrison have estimated that the covariance between the localcurrency returns on HI and changes in the USD/Yen spot rate is -0.184 and that the variance of changes in theUSD/Yen spot rate is 0.92.Which of the following best describes the minimum variance hedge ratio for Garrison's currency futures hedgeon the Haikuza investment?
Security analysts Andrew Tian, CFA, and Cameron Wong, CFA, are attending an investment symposium at theSingapore Investment Analyst Society. The focus of the symposium is capital market expectations and relativeasset valuations across markets. Many highly-respected practitioners and academics from across the AsiaPacific region are on hand to make presentations and participate in panel discussions.The first presenter, Lillian So, President of the Society, speaks on market expectations and tools for estimatingintrinsic valuations. She notes that analysts attempting to gauge expectations are often subject to variouspitfalls that subjectively skew their estimates. She also points out that there are potential problems relating to achoice of models, not all of which describe risk the same way. She then provides the following data to illustratehow analysts might go about estimating expectations and intrinsic values.
The next speaker, Clive Smyth, is a member of the exchange rate committee at the Bank of New Zealand. Hispresentation concerns the links between spot currency rates and forecasted exchange rates. He states thatforeign exchange rates are linked by several forces including purchasing power parity (PPP) and interest rateparity (IRP). He tells his audience that the relationship between exchange rates and PPP is strongest in theshort run, while the relationship between exchange rates and IRP is strongest in the long run. Smyth goes on tosay that when a country's economy becomes more integrated with the larger world economy, this can have aprofound impact on the cost of capital and asset valuations in that country.The final speaker in the session directed his discussion toward emerging market investments. This discussion,by Hector Ruiz, head of emerging market investment for the Chilean Investment Board, was primarilyconcerned with how emerging market risk differs from that in developed markets and how to evaluate thepotential of emerging market investments. He noted that sometimes an economic crisis in one country canspread to other countries in the area, and that asset returns often exhibit a greater degree of non-normality thanin developed markets.Ruiz concluded his presentation with the data in the tables below to illustrate factors that should be consideredduring the decision-making process for portfolio managers who are evaluating investments in emergingmarkets.
Determine which of the following characteristics of emerging market debt investing presents the global fixedincome portfolio manager with the best potential to generate enhanced returns.
Dakota Watson and Anthony Smith are bond portfolio managers for Northern Capital Investment Advisors,which is based in the U.S. Northern Capital has $2,000 million under management, with S950 million of that inthe bond market. Northern Capital's clients are primarily institutional investors such as insurance companies,foundations, and endowments. Because most clients insist on a margin over the relevant bond benchmark,Watson and Smith actively manage their bond portfolios, while at the same time trying to minimize trackingerror.One of the funds that Northern Capital offers invests in emerging market bonds. An excerpt from its prospectusreveals the following fund objectives and strategies:“The fund generates a return by constructing a portfolio using all major fixed-income sectors within the Asianregion (except Japan) with a bias towards non-government bonds. The fund makes opportunistic investmentsin both investment grade and high yield bonds. Northern Capital analysts seek those bond issues that areexpected to outperform U.S. bonds with similar credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk-Value is added byfinding those bonds that have been overlooked by other developed world bond funds. The fund favors nondollar, local currency denominated securities to avoid the default risk associated with a lack of hard currency onthe part of issuer."Although Northern Capital does examine the availability of excess returns in foreign markets by investingoutside the index in these markets, most of its strategies focus on U.S. bonds and spread analysis of them.Discussing the analysis of spreads in the U.S. bond market, Watson comments on the usefulness of the optionadjusted spread and the swap spread and makes the following statements:Statement 1: Due to changes in the structure of the primary bond market in the U.S., the option adjustedspread is increasingly valuable for analyzing the attractiveness of bond investments.Statement 2: The advantage of the swap spread framework is that investors can compare the relativeattractiveness of fixed-rate and floating-rate bond markets.Watson's view of the U.S. economy is decidedly bearish. She is concerned that the recent withdrawal of liquidityfrom the U.S. financial system will result in a U.S. recession, possibly even a depression. She forecasts thatinterest rates in the U.S. will continue to fall as the demand for loanable funds declines with the lack of businessinvestment. Meanwhile, she believes that the Federal Reserve will continue to keep short-term rates low inorder to stimulate the economy. Although she sees the level of yields declining, she believes that the spread onrisky securities will increase due to the decline in business prospects. She therefore has reallocated her bondportfolio away from high-yield bonds and towards investment grade bonds.Smith is less decided about the economy. However, his trading strategy has been quite successful in the past.As an example of his strategy, he recently sold a 20-year AA-rated $50,000 Mahan Corporation bond with a7.75% coupon that he had purchased at par. With the proceeds, he then bought a newly issued A-rated QuincyCorporation bond that offered an 8.25% coupon. By swapping the first bond for the second bond, he enhancedhis annual income, which he considers quite favorable given the declining yields in the market.Watson has become quite interested in the mortgage market. With the anticipated decline in interest rates, sheexpects that the yields on mortgages will decline. As a result, she has reallocated the portion of NorthernCapital's bond portfolio dedicated to mortgages. She has shifted the holdings from 8.50% coupon mortgages to7.75% coupon mortgages, reasoning that if interest rates do drop, the lower coupon mortgages will rise in pricemore than the higher coupon mortgages. She identifies this trade as a structure trade.Smith is examining the liquidity of three bonds. Their characteristics are listed in the table below:
Which of the following best describes the relative value analysis used in the Northern Capita! Emerging marketbond fund? It is a:
Rowan Brothers is a full service investment firm offering portfolio management and investment banking services. For the last ten years, Aaron King, CFA, has managed individual client portfolios for Rowan Brothers, most of which are trust accounts over which King has full discretion. One of King's clients, Shelby Pavlica, is a widow in her late 50s whose husband died and left assets of over $7 million in a trust, for which she is the only beneficiary. Pavlica's three children are appalled at their mother's spending habits and have called a meeting with King to discuss their concerns. They inform King that their mother is living too lavishly to leave much for them or Pavlica's grandchildren upon her death. King acknowledges their concerns and informs them that, on top of her ever-increasing spending, Pavlica has recently been diagnosed with a chronic illness. Since the diagnosis could indicate a considerable increase in medical spending, he will need to increase the risk of the portfolio to generate sufficient return to cover the medical bills and spending and still maintain the principal. King restructures the portfolio accordingly and then meets with Pavlica a week later to discuss how he has altered the investment strategy, which was previously revised only three months earlier in their annual meeting. During the meeting with Pavlica, Kang explains his reasoning tor altering the portfolio allocation but does not mention the meeting with Pavlica's children. Pavlica agrees that it is probably the wisest decision and accepts the new portfolio allocation adding that she will need to tell her children about her illness, so they will understand why her medical spending requirements will increase in the near future. She admits to King that her children have been concerned about her spending. King assures her that the new investments will definitely allow her to maintain her lifestyle and meet her higher medical spending needs. One of the investments selected by King is a small allocation in a private placement offered to him by a brokerage firm that often makes trades for King's portfolios. The private placement is an equity investment in ShaleCo, a small oil exploration company. In order to make the investment, King sold shares of a publicly traded biotech firm, VNC Technologies. King also held shares of VNC, a fact that he has always disclosed to clients before purchasing VNC for their accounts. An hour before submitting the sell order for the VNC shares in Pavlica's trust account. King placed an order to sell a portion of his position in VNC stock. By the time Pavlica's order was sent to the trading floor, the price of VNC had risen, allowing Pavlica to sell her shares at a better price than received by King. Although King elected not to take any shares in the private placement, he purchased positions for several of his clients, for whom the investment was deemed appropriate in terms of the clients* objectives and constraints as well as the existing composition of the portfolios. In response to the investment support, ShaleCo appointed King to their board of directors. Seeing an opportunity to advance his career while also protecting the value of his clients' investments in the company, King gladly accepted the offer. King decided that since serving on the board of ShaleCo is in his clients' best interest, it is not necessary to disclose the directorship to his clients or his employer. For his portfolio management services, King charges a fixed percentage fee based on the value of assets under management. All fees charged and other terms of service are disclosed to clients as well as prospects. In the past month, however. Rowan Brothers has instituted an incentive program for its portfolio managers. Under the program, the firm will award an all-expense-paid vacation to the Cayman islands for any portfolio manager who generates two consecutive quarterly returns for his clients in excess of 10%. King updates his marketing literature to ensure that his prospective clients are fully aware of his compensation arrangements, but he does not contact current clients to make them aware of the newly created performance incentive. According to the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, which of the following statements is correct concerning King's directorship with ShaleCo?
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