Free CFA Institute CFA-Level-III Exam Questions

Become CFA Institute Certified with updated CFA-Level-III exam questions and correct answers

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Total 365 Questions | Updated On: Feb 19, 2026
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Question 1

Dakota Watson and Anthony Smith are bond portfolio managers for Northern Capital Investment Advisors,which is based in the U.S. Northern Capital has $2,000 million under management, with S950 million of that inthe bond market. Northern Capital's clients are primarily institutional investors such as insurance companies,foundations, and endowments. Because most clients insist on a margin over the relevant bond benchmark,Watson and Smith actively manage their bond portfolios, while at the same time trying to minimize trackingerror.One of the funds that Northern Capital offers invests in emerging market bonds. An excerpt from its prospectusreveals the following fund objectives and strategies:“The fund generates a return by constructing a portfolio using all major fixed-income sectors within the Asianregion (except Japan) with a bias towards non-government bonds. The fund makes opportunistic investmentsin both investment grade and high yield bonds. Northern Capital analysts seek those bond issues that areexpected to outperform U.S. bonds with similar credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk-Value is added byfinding those bonds that have been overlooked by other developed world bond funds. The fund favors nondollar, local currency denominated securities to avoid the default risk associated with a lack of hard currency onthe part of issuer."Although Northern Capital does examine the availability of excess returns in foreign markets by investingoutside the index in these markets, most of its strategies focus on U.S. bonds and spread analysis of them.Discussing the analysis of spreads in the U.S. bond market, Watson comments on the usefulness of the optionadjusted spread and the swap spread and makes the following statements:Statement 1: Due to changes in the structure of the primary bond market in the U.S., the option adjustedspread is increasingly valuable for analyzing the attractiveness of bond investments.Statement 2: The advantage of the swap spread framework is that investors can compare the relativeattractiveness of fixed-rate and floating-rate bond markets.Watson's view of the U.S. economy is decidedly bearish. She is concerned that the recent withdrawal of liquidityfrom the U.S. financial system will result in a U.S. recession, possibly even a depression. She forecasts thatinterest rates in the U.S. will continue to fall as the demand for loanable funds declines with the lack of businessinvestment. Meanwhile, she believes that the Federal Reserve will continue to keep short-term rates low inorder to stimulate the economy. Although she sees the level of yields declining, she believes that the spread onrisky securities will increase due to the decline in business prospects. She therefore has reallocated her bondportfolio away from high-yield bonds and towards investment grade bonds.Smith is less decided about the economy. However, his trading strategy has been quite successful in the past.As an example of his strategy, he recently sold a 20-year AA-rated $50,000 Mahan Corporation bond with a7.75% coupon that he had purchased at par. With the proceeds, he then bought a newly issued A-rated QuincyCorporation bond that offered an 8.25% coupon. By swapping the first bond for the second bond, he enhancedhis annual income, which he considers quite favorable given the declining yields in the market.Watson has become quite interested in the mortgage market. With the anticipated decline in interest rates, sheexpects that the yields on mortgages will decline. As a result, she has reallocated the portion of NorthernCapital's bond portfolio dedicated to mortgages. She has shifted the holdings from 8.50% coupon mortgages to7.75% coupon mortgages, reasoning that if interest rates do drop, the lower coupon mortgages will rise in pricemore than the higher coupon mortgages. She identifies this trade as a structure trade.Smith is examining the liquidity of three bonds. Their characteristics are listed in the table below:CFA-Level-III-page476-image280Which of the following best describes the relative value analysis used in the Northern Capita! Emerging marketbond fund? It is a:


Answer: B
Question 2

Walter Skinner, CFA, manages a bond portfolio for Director Securities. The bond portfolio is part of a pensionplan trust set up to benefit retirees of Thomas Steel Inc. As part of the investment policy governing the plan andthe bond portfolio, no foreign securities are to be held in the portfolio at any time and no bonds with a creditrating below investment grade are allowable for the bond portfolio. In addition, the bond portfolio must remainunleveraged. The bond portfolio is currently valued at $800 million and has a duration of 6.50. Skinner believesthat interest rates are going to increase, so he wants to lower his portfolio's duration to 4.50. He has decided toachieve the reduction in duration by using swap contracts. He has two possible swaps to choose from:1. Swap A: 4-year swap with quarterly payments.2. Swap B: 5-year swap with semiannual payments.Skinner plans to be the fixed-rate payer in the swap, receiving a floating-rate payment in exchange. Foranalysis, Skinner always assumes the duration of a fixed rate bond is 75% of its term to maturity.Several years ago, Skinner decided to circumvent the policy restrictions on foreign securities by purchasing adual currency bond issued by an American holding company with significant operations in Japan. The bondmakes semiannual fixed interest payments in Japanese yen but will make the final principal payment in U.S.dollars five years from now. Skinner originally purchased the bond to take advantage of the strengtheningrelative position of the yen. The result was an above average return for the bond portfolio for several years.Now, however, he is concerned that the yen is going to begin a weakening trend, as he expects inflation in theJapanese economy to accelerate over the next few years. Knowing Skinner's situation, one of his colleagues,Bill Michaels, suggests the following strategy:"You need to offset your exposure to the Japanese yen by establishing a short position in a synthetic dualcurrency bond that matches the terms of the dual currency bond you purchased for the Thomas Steel bondportfolio. As part of the strategy, you will have to enter into a currency swap as the fixed-rate yen payer. Theswap will neutralize the dual-currency bond position but will unfortunately increase the credit risk exposure ofthe portfolio."Skinner has also spoken to Orval Mann, the senior economist with Director Securities, about his expectationsfor the bond portfolio. Mann has also provided some advice to Skinner in the following comment:"1 know you expect a general increase in interest rates, but I disagree with your assessment of the interest rateshift. I believe interest rates are going to decrease. Therefore, you will want to synthetically remove the callfeatures of any callable bonds in your portfolio by purchasing a payer interest rate swaption."After his lung conversation with Director Securities' senior economist, Orval Mann, Skinner has completelychanged his outlook on interest rates and has decided to extend the duration of his portfolio. The mostappropriate strategy to accomplish this objective using swaps would be to enter into a swap to pay:


Answer: B
Question 3

Rowan Brothers is a full service investment firm offering portfolio management and investment banking services. For the last ten years, Aaron King, CFA, has managed individual client portfolios for Rowan Brothers, most of which are trust accounts over which King has full discretion. One of King's clients, Shelby Pavlica, is a widow in her late 50s whose husband died and left assets of over $7 million in a trust, for which she is the only beneficiary. Pavlica's three children are appalled at their mother's spending habits and have called a meeting with King to discuss their concerns. They inform King that their mother is living too lavishly to leave much for them or Pavlica's grandchildren upon her death. King acknowledges their concerns and informs them that, on top of her ever-increasing spending, Pavlica has recently been diagnosed with a chronic illness. Since the diagnosis could indicate a considerable increase in medical spending, he will need to increase the risk of the portfolio to generate sufficient return to cover the medical bills and spending and still maintain the principal. King restructures the portfolio accordingly and then meets with Pavlica a week later to discuss how he has altered the investment strategy, which was previously revised only three months earlier in their annual meeting. During the meeting with Pavlica, Kang explains his reasoning tor altering the portfolio allocation but does not mention the meeting with Pavlica's children. Pavlica agrees that it is probably the wisest decision and accepts the new portfolio allocation adding that she will need to tell her children about her illness, so they will understand why her medical spending requirements will increase in the near future. She admits to King that her children have been concerned about her spending. King assures her that the new investments will definitely allow her to maintain her lifestyle and meet her higher medical spending needs. One of the investments selected by King is a small allocation in a private placement offered to him by a brokerage firm that often makes trades for King's portfolios. The private placement is an equity investment in ShaleCo, a small oil exploration company. In order to make the investment, King sold shares of a publicly traded biotech firm, VNC Technologies. King also held shares of VNC, a fact that he has always disclosed to clients before purchasing VNC for their accounts. An hour before submitting the sell order for the VNC shares in Pavlica's trust account. King placed an order to sell a portion of his position in VNC stock. By the time Pavlica's order was sent to the trading floor, the price of VNC had risen, allowing Pavlica to sell her shares at a better price than received by King. Although King elected not to take any shares in the private placement, he purchased positions for several of his clients, for whom the investment was deemed appropriate in terms of the clients* objectives and constraints as well as the existing composition of the portfolios. In response to the investment support, ShaleCo appointed King to their board of directors. Seeing an opportunity to advance his career while also protecting the value of his clients' investments in the company, King gladly accepted the offer. King decided that since serving on the board of ShaleCo is in his clients' best interest, it is not necessary to disclose the directorship to his clients or his employer. For his portfolio management services, King charges a fixed percentage fee based on the value of assets under management. All fees charged and other terms of service are disclosed to clients as well as prospects. In the past month, however. Rowan Brothers has instituted an incentive program for its portfolio managers. Under the program, the firm will award an all-expense-paid vacation to the Cayman islands for any portfolio manager who generates two consecutive quarterly returns for his clients in excess of 10%. King updates his marketing literature to ensure that his prospective clients are fully aware of his compensation arrangements, but he does not contact current clients to make them aware of the newly created performance incentive. According to the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, which of the following statements is correct concerning King's directorship with ShaleCo?


Answer: C
Question 4

Geneva Management (GenM) selects long-only and long-short portfolio managers to develop asset allocationrecommendations for their institutional clients.GenM Advisor Marcus Reinhart recently examined the holdings of one of GenM's long-only portfolios activelymanaged by Jamison Kiley. Reinhart compiled the holdings for two consecutive non-overlapping five yearperiods. The Morningstar Style Boxes for the two periods for Kiley's portfolio are provided in Exhibits 1 and 2.Exhibit 1: Morningstar Style Box: Long-Only Manager for Five-Year Period 1CFA-Level-III-page476-image326Exhibit 2: Morningstar Style Box: Long-Only Manager for Five-Year Period 2CFA-Level-III-page476-image325Reinhart contends that the holdings-based analysis might be flawed because Kiley's portfolio holdings areknown only at the end of each quarter. Portfolio holdings at the end of the reporting period might misrepresentthe portfolio's average composition. To compliment his holdings-based analysis, Reinhart also conducts areturns-based style analysis on Kiley's portfolio. Reinhart selects four benchmarks:1. SCV: a small-cap value index.2. SCG: a small-cap growth index.3. LCV: a large-cap value index.4. LCG: a large-cap growth index.Using the benchmarks, Reinhart obtains the following regression results:Period 1: Rp = 0.02 + H0.01(SCV) + 0.02(SCG) + 0.36(LCV) + 0.61(LCG)Period 2: Rp = 0.02 + 0.01(SCV) + 0.02(SCG) + 0.60(LCV) + 0.38(LCG)Kiley's long-only portfolio is benchmarked against the S&P 500 Index. The Index's current sector allocations areshown in Exhibit 3.Exhibit 3: S&P 500 Index Sector AllocationsCFA-Level-III-page476-image327GenM strives to select managers whose correlation between forecast alphas and realized alphas has beenfairly high, and to allocate funds across managers in order to achieve alpha and beta separation. GenM givesReinhart a mandate to pursue a core-satellite strategy with a small number of satellites each focusing on arelatively few number of securities.In response to the core-satellite mandate, Reinhart explains that a Completeness Fund approach offers twoadvantages:Advantage 1: The Completeness Fund approach is designed to capture the stock selecting ability of the activemanager, while matching the overall portfolio's risk to its benchmark.Advantage 2: The Completeness Fund approach allows the Fund to fully capture the value added from activemanagers by eliminating misfit risk.Which one of the following statements about Kiley's long-only portfolio is most correct1? Kiley's portfolio:


Answer: C
Question 5

Robert Keith, CFA, has begun a new job at CMT Investments as Head of Compliance. Keith has just completed a review of all of CMT's operations, and has interviewed all the firm's portfolio managers. Many are CFA charterholders, but some are not. Keith intends to use the CFA Institute Code and Standards, as well as the Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct, as ethical guidelines for CMT to follow. In the course of Keith's review of the firm's overall practices, he has noted a few situations which potentially need to be addressed. Situation 1: CMT Investments' policy regarding acceptance of gifts and entertainment is not entirely clear. There is general confusion within the firm regarding what is and is not acceptable practice regarding gifts, entertainment and additional compensation. Situation 2: Keith sees inconsistency regarding fee disclosures to clients. In some cases, information related to fees paid to investment managers for investment services provided are properly disclosed. However, a few of the periodic costs, which will affect investment return, are not disclosed to the clients. Most managers are providing clients with investment returns net of fees, but a few are just providing the gross returns. One of the managers stated "providing gross returns is acceptable, as long as I show the fees such that the client can make their own simple calculation of the returns net of fees." Situation 3: Keith has noticed a few gaps in CMT's procedure regarding use of soft dollars. There have been cases where "directed brokerage" has resulted in less than prompt execution of trades. He also found a few cases where a manager paid a higher commission than normal, in order to obtain goods or services. Keith is considering adding two statements to CMT's policy and procedures manual specifically addressing the primary issues he noted. Statement 1: "Commissions paid, and any corresponding benefits received, are the property of the client. The benefit(s) must directly benefit the client. If a manager's client directs the manager to purchase goods or services that do not provide research services that benefit the client, this violates the duty of loyalty to the client.” Statement 2: "In cases of "directed brokerage," if there is concern that the client is not receiving the best execution, it is acceptable to utilize a less than ideal broker, but it must be disclosed to the client that they may not be obtaining the best execution." Situation 4: Keith is still evaluating his data, but it appears that there may be situations where proxies were not voted. After completing his analysis of proxy voting procedures at CMT, Keith wants to insert the proper language into the procedures manual to address proxy voting. Situation 5: Keith is putting into place a "disaster recovery- plan," in order to ensure business continuity in the event of a localized disaster, and also to protect against any type of disruption in the financial markets. This plan includes the following provisions: • Procedures for communicating with clients, especially in the event of extended disruption of services provided. • Alternate arrangement for monitoring and analyzing investments in the event that primary systems become unavailable. • Plans for internal communication and coverage of crucial business functions in the event of disruption at the primary place of business, or a communications breakdown. Keith is considering adding the following provisions to the disaster recovery plan in order to properly comply with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct: Provision 1: "A provision needs to be added incorporating off-site backup for all pertinent account information." Provision 2: "A provision mandating testing of the plan on a company-wide basis, at periodical intervals, should be added." Situation 6: Keith is spending an incredible amount of time on detailed procedures and company policies that are in compliance with the CFA Institute Code and Standards, and also in compliance with the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct. As part of this process, he has had several meetings with CMT senior management, and is second-guessing the process. One of the senior managers is indicating that it might be abetter idea to just formally adopt both the Code and Standards and the Asset Manager Code of Conduct, which would make a detailed policy and procedure manual redundant. Keith wants to assure CMT's compliance with the requirements of the CFA Institute Code and Standards of Professional Conduct. Which of the following statements most accurately describes CMT's responsibilities in order to assure compliance?


Answer: B
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Total 365 Questions | Updated On: Feb 19, 2026
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