Daniel Castillo and Ramon Diaz are chief investment officers at Advanced Advisors (AA), a boutique fixedincome firm based in the United States. AA employs numerous quantitative models to invest in both domestic
and international securities.
During the week, Castillo and Diaz consult with one of their investors, Sally Michaels. Michaels currently holds a
$10,000,000 fixed-income position that is selling at par. The maturity is 20 years, and the coupon rate of 7% is
paid semiannually. Her coupons can be reinvested at 8%. Castillo is looking at various interest rate change
scenarios, and one such scenario is where the interest rate on the bonds immediately changes to 8%.
Diaz is considering using a repurchase agreement to leverage Michaels's portfolio. Michaels is concerned,
however, with not understanding the factors that impact the interest rate, or repo rate, used in her strategy. In
response, Castillo explains the factors that affect the repo rate and makes the following statements:
1. "The repo rate is directly related to the maturity of the repo, inversely related to the quality of the collateral,
and directly related to the maturity of the collateral. U.S. Treasury bills are often purchased by Treasury dealers
using repo transactions, and since they have high liquidity, short maturities, and no default risk, the repo rate is
usually quite low. "
2. "The greater control the lender has over the collateral, the lower the repo rate. If the availability of the
collateral is limited, the repo rate will be higher."
Castillo consults with an institutional investor, the Washington Investment Fund, on the effect of leverage on
bond portfolio returns as well as their bond portfolio's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The portfolio under
discussion is well diversified, with small positions in a large number of bonds. It has a duration of 7.2. Of the
$200 million value of the portfolio, $60 million was borrowed. The duration of borrowed funds is 0.8. The
expected return on the portfolio is 8% and the cost of borrowed funds is 3%.
The next day, the chief investment officer for the Washington Investment Fund expresses her concern about
the risk of their portfolio, given its leverage. She inquires about the various risk measures for bond portfolios. In
response, Diaz distinguishes between the standard deviation and downside risk measures, making the
following statements:
1. ''Portfolio managers complain that using variance to calculate Sharpe ratios is inappropriate. Since it
considers all returns over the entire distribution, variance and the resulting standard deviation are artificially
inflated, so the resulting Sharpe ratio is artificially deflated. Since it is easily calculated for bond portfolios,
managers feci a more realistic measure of risk is the semi-variance, which measures the distribution of returns
below a given return, such as the mean or a hurdle rate."
2. "A shortcoming of VAR is its inability to predict the size of potential losses in the lower tail of the expected
return distribution. Although it can assign a probability to some maximum loss, it does not predict the actual loss
if the maximum loss is exceeded. If Washington Investment Fund is worried about catastrophic loss, shortfall
risk is a more appropriate measure, because it provides the probability of not meeting a target return."
AA has a corporate client, Shaifer Materials with a €20,000,000 bond outstanding that pays an annual fixed
coupon rate of 9.5% with a 5-year maturity. Castillo believes that euro interest rates may decrease further within
the next year below the coupon rate on the fixed rate bond. Castillo would like Shaifer to issue new debt at a
lower euro interest rate in the future. Castillo has, however, looked into the costs of calling the bonds and has
found that the call premium is quite high and that the investment banking costs of issuing new floating rate debt
would be quite steep. As such he is considering using a swaption to create a synthetic refinancing of the bond
at a lower cost than an actual refinancing of the bond. He states that in order to do so, Shaifer should buy a
payer swaption, which would give them the option to pay a lower floating interest rate if rates drop.
Diaz retrieves current market data for payer and receiver swaptions with a maturity of one year. The terms of
each instrument are provided below:
Payer swaption fixed rate7.90%
Receiver swaption fixed rate7.60%
Current Euribor7.20%
Projected Euribor in one year5.90%
Diaz states that, assuming Castillo is correct, Shaifer can exercise a swaption in one year to effectively call in
their old fixed rate euro debt paying 9.5% and refinance at a floating rate, which would be 7.5% in one year.
Regarding their statements concerning the synthetic refinancing of the Shaifer Materials fixed rate euro debt,
are the comments correct?